2018 l 2019 FREE
Preparing for the ACT® Test
What’s Inside
• Full-Length Practice ACT Test, including the Optional Writing Test
• Information about the Multiple-Choice and Writing Tests
• Test-Taking Strategies
• What to Expect on Test Day
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A Message to Students
This booklet is an important first step as you get ready for
college and your career.
The information here is intended to help you do your
best on the ACT—the test taken by the majority of US
high school students to gain admission to colleges and
universities. Included are helpful hints and test-taking
strategies, as well as a complete practice ACT, with “retired”
questions from earlier tests given on previous test dates at
ACT test sites. Also featured are a practice writing test, a
sample answer document, answer keys, and self-scoring
instructions.
Read this booklet carefully and take the practice tests well
before test day. That way, you will be familiar with the tests,
what they measure, and strategies you can use to do your
best on test day.
For additional ACT test preparation materials, go to
www.act.org/the-act/testprep for information on:
•
ACT Online PrepTM
•
ACT® Kaplan Online Prep Live
•
The Official ACT Prep Guide
•
ACT Sample Questions
•
ACT AcademyTM
2
Contents
A Message to Students
2
Overview of the ACT 3
Test-Taking Strategies 3
Prohibited Behavior at the
Test Center
5
Content of the ACT Tests 6
Taking the Practice Tests 10
Practice Multiple-Choice Tests
11
Practice Writing Test 53
How to Score the Multiple-Choice
Tests 56
Reviewing Your Performance on the
Multiple-Choice Tests 56
How to Score the Writing Test
61
Sample Answer Document 63
ACT is committed to representing the diversity of society in all its aspects, including race, ethnicity, and gender. Questions, passages, and writing prompts are chosen to reflect a range of cultures and are written to not disadvantage any particular group of examinees. ACT employs extensive reviews and statistical procedures to ensure the fairness of test materials.
ACT conducts research and periodically updates tests to provide test content that reflects classroom instruction and continues to be a relevant predictor of college and career readiness. There may be subtle differences between the ACT practice test in this booklet and the test students take on test day.
ACT endorses the Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education and the Code of Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement, which guide the conduct of those involved in educational testing. ACT is committed to ensuring that each of its testing programs upholds the guidelines in each Code. You may locate copies of these Codes through the following organizations:
• Code of Fair Testing Practices in Education: American Psychological Association (www.apa.org)
• Code of Professional Responsibilities in Educational Measurement: National Council on Measurement in Education (www.ncme.org)
NOTE: This booklet is covered by federal copyright laws that prohibit the reproduction of the test questions without the prior express, written permission of ACT, Inc. No portion of this booklet may be copied or distributed without written permission of ACT.
© 2018 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved. JA00003.OPS2344
Overview of the ACT
The ACT consists of four multiple-choice tests—in English, mathematics, reading, and science—with an optional writing test. Some colleges and universities require or accept ACT writing scores, so you may consider taking the writing section of the ACT.
Test Questions Minutes per Test English 75 45 Mathematics 60 60
Reading 40 35 Science 40 35 Writing (optional) 1 essay 40
Each multiple-choice test contains questions with either four or five answers from which you are to choose the correct, or best, answer.
The ACT measures the knowledge, understanding, and skills you have acquired throughout your years in school. Because of this, it is unlikely that a “cram” course can improve your scores.
However, it is a good idea to do some test preparation to be familiar with the tests and what to expect on test day.
Here are three strategies to help you prepare for the ACT: ✓
Get familiar with the content of the tests.
Review the information in this booklet. Note which content areas make up a large proportion of the tests. The topics included in each content area are examples of possible topics; they do not include all possibilities. ✓
Update your knowledge and skills in the content areas.
Review content areas that you have studied but are not fresh in your mind. Refresh your knowledge in the content areas that make up large portions of the tests. ✓
Study content areas you are not familiar with.
If some content areas of the ACT are unfamiliar to you, consider taking coursework in those areas before you take the test.
Test-Taking Strategies
These suggestions apply to the four multiple-choice tests. ✓
Pace yourself.
It is important that you have enough time to read the passages/ questions and figure out your responses. For each test, subtract the number of minutes you estimate you will spend skimming the passages or reading the information provided, then divide the total number of remaining minutes allowed by the number of questions to determine the estimated time you should spend on each question. If possible, spend less time on each question and use the remaining time allowed for a test to review your work and return to the questions on that test that were most difficult for you.
The time limits set for each test give nearly everyone enough time to finish all questions. However, you will want to pace yourself to avoid spending too much time on one passage or puzzling over an answer to a specific problem. Go on to other questions and come back if there is time. ✓
Read the directions carefully.
Before you begin each test, read the directions carefully.
•
The English, reading, and science tests ask for the best answer. Read and consider all of the answer choices and choose the answer that best responds to the question.
•
The mathematics test asks for the correct answer. You may want to work out the answer you feel is correct and look for it among the choices given. If your answer is not among the choices provided, reread the question and consider all the answer choices. ✓
Read each question carefully.
You need to understand exactly what each question asks. Some questions will require you to go through several steps to find the correct or best answer, while others can be answered more quickly. ✓
Answer the easy questions first.
A good strategy is to answer the easy questions and skip the questions you find difficult. After answering the easy questions, go back and answer the more difficult questions if you have time. ✓
Use logic on more difficult questions.
When you return to the more difficult questions, try to use logic to eliminate incorrect answers. Compare the answer choices to each other and note how they differ. Such differences may provide clues as to what the question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect answers as you can, then make an educated guess from the remaining answers.
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✓
Answer every question.
Your score on the tests will be based only on the number of questions that you answer correctly; there is no penalty for guessing. Try to answer every question within the time allowed for each test. ✓
Review your work.
If there is time left after you have answered every question in a test, go back and check your work on that test. You will not be allowed to go back to any other test or mark responses to a test after time has been called on that test. ✓
Be precise in marking your responses.
If you are taking the ACT on paper, be sure that you properly fill in the appropriate ovals on your answer document. Check that the number of the line of ovals on your answer document is the same as the number of the question you are answering and that you mark only one answer for each question. If the ACT is taken online, be sure you select the intended response. ✓
Erase completely.
If you want to change a multiple-choice answer, be sure to use a soft eraser that will erase the unintended mark completely and not leave smudges. Do not cross out answers or use correction fluid or tape; you must erase. Smudges or unintended marks may cause errors in scoring.
Get Ready
Prepare well in advance for the ACT.
•
Know what to expect on test day. Review the information in this booklet and at www.actstudent.org.
•
Take the practice tests in the order they are shown in this booklet, time yourself, and review your responses using the answer keys.
•
Carefully review the test-day checklist at www.act.org/the-act/checklist.
•
Get plenty of rest the night before the tests.
Note: Most procedures in this booklet refer to testing on a National test date at an ACT test site (within the United States, US territories, or Puerto Rico). Procedures may differ slightly if you take a different administration of the ACT test.
On Test Day
Report on Time
•
For National test dates, you must report to your assigned test site by the time stated on your paper ticket (usually 8:00 a.m.). If you are late, you will not be admitted to test. If your ticket does not list a specific test room, the test staff or posted signs will direct you.
Bring With You
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At check-in, you will be required to show an acceptable photo ID or you will not be admitted to test. See ACT requirements for ID on your ticket or at www.act.org/the-act/id.
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Your paper ticket is necessary (if you test on a National ACT test date). Failure to bring your ticket will delay your scores. If you have lost your ticket, you can print another through your ACT web account.
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If taking the ACT on paper, bring sharpened, soft lead No. 2 pencils and good erasers (no mechanical pencils or ink pens). Do not bring any other writing instruments. You will not be allowed to use them.
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A watch to pace yourself. Do not bring a watch with recording, internet, communication, or calculator capabilities (e.g., a smart watch or fitness band).
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A permitted calculator may be used on the mathematics test only. It is your responsibility to know whether your calculator is permitted. For the most current information on the ACT calculator policy, visit www.act.org/calculator-policy.html or call 800.498.6481 for a recorded message.
In the Test Room
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Test staff will direct you to a seat. If you need a left-handed desk, tell the staff as you enter.
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Do not leave the test room after you have been admitted.
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If taking the ACT on paper, only pencils, erasers, a permitted calculator, and your paper ticket will be allowed on your desk.
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You will be required to put all other personal belongings away.
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You may not use tobacco in any form. You may consume snacks and drinks outside the test room during break.
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Testing will begin as soon as all examinees who are present at 8:00 a.m. are checked in and seated.
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Listen carefully to all directions read by the test staff.
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It is important that you follow all directions carefully.
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ACT tries out questions on National test dates to develop future tests. Following the science test you should expect to take a shorter, multiple-choice test covering one of the previous subject areas. Please try your best on these questions because your participation can help shape the future of the ACT. The results of the fifth test will not be relected on your reported scores.
•
You will normally be dismissed at about 12:35 p.m. if you take the ACT (no writing), or at about 1:35 p.m. if you take the ACT with writing.
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For Students Approved to Test at National Test Sites With Extended Time
Extended time testing is available on the multiple-choice and/or writing tests for students with diagnosed disabilities and/or limited English proficiency.
If you are approved for extended time at a National test site, you will have 50% additional time to complete each section. For the multiple-choice tests, you will have 70 minutes to complete the English test, 90 minutes to complete the mathematics test, 55 minutes to complete the reading test, and 55 minutes to complete the science test.
If you are approved for extended time on the writing test, you will have 60 minutes to respond to the prompt.
After Testing
Voiding Your Test on Test Day
If you have to leave the test site before completing all of your tests, you must decide whether or not you want your test scored and then inform the test staff of your decision. If you do not, your test will be scored.
Once you break the seal on your multiple-choice test booklet, you cannot request a Test Date Change. If you do not complete all your tests and want to test again, you will have to pay the full
fee for your test option again. Once you begin filling out your test, you cannot change from one test option to another.
Testing More Than Once
You may not receive scores from more than one test taken during a scheduled National or International test date. For example, you may test on Saturday, on an authorized non- Saturday date, or on a rescheduled test date—but not on more than one of those days on a particular test date. If you are admitted and allowed to test a second time on a particular test date, we will report only the scores from the first test. The second set of scores will be canceled without refund.
For more information about retaking the ACT, see www.act.org/the-act/retaking.
Requesting a Copy of Your Test Questions and Answers
On certain National test dates, if you test at a National test site, you may order (for an additional fee) a copy of the multiple- choice test questions used to determine your scores, a list of your answers, and the answer key. If you took the writing test, you will also receive a copy of the writing prompt, scoring guidelines, and the scores assigned to your essay.
This service is not available for all test dates or for other testing programs (e.g., International, State and District, Special).
If you want to request and pay for this service, check www.act.org/the-act/tir.
Prohibited Behavior at the Test Center
A complete list of the prohibited behaviors is provided in the Terms and Conditions located at www.act.org/the-act/terms. Please •
You be may reminded not fill in of or the alter following:
responses, or continue writing, after time has been called on that test. This includes fixing stray marks or accidental keystrokes. You may not look at any section of the test outside of the designated time for that
•
test.
You may not give or receive assistance by any means. This
•
includes You are not looking allowed at another to use highlight person’s pens, test.
colored pens or pencils, notes, dictionaries, unapproved scratch paper, or
•
other You may aids.
not allow an alarm to sound in the test room or create any other disturbance. If you are wearing a watch with an alarm or have any other alarm device, you must be sure it is turned off.
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The test is confidential and remains so even after the exam is complete. You may not remove any materials from the test room. You may not discuss or share test content, test form identification numbers, or answers during test administration, during breaks, after the test, or on social
•
media.
You may not access an electronic device such as cell phones, smart watches, and fitness bands, at any time during testing or during break. All devices must be powered off and placed out of sight from the time you are admitted to test until you
•
leave Eating, the drinking, test center.
and the use of tobacco or reading materials
•
are Your not test permitted center may in the also test have room.
additional procedures with which you must comply.
If you are observed or suspected of engaging in prohibited behavior, you will be dismissed and your test will not be scored.
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Content of the ACT Tests
English Test
The English test is a 75-question, 45-minute test that consists of five essays, or passages, each followed by a set of multiple- choice •
Some test questions questions.
refer to underlined portions of the passage and offer several alternatives to the underlined portion. You decide which choice is most appropriate in the context of the
•
passage. Some questions ask about an underlined portion, a section of the passage, or the passage as a whole. You decide which
•
choice Many questions best answers offer the “NO question CHANGE” posed.
to the passage as one of the choices. The English test puts you in the position of a writer who makes decisions to revise and edit a text. Short texts and essays in different genres provide a variety of rhetorical situations. Passages are chosen for their appropriateness in assessing writing and language skills and to reflect students’ interests and experiences. Four scores are reported for the English test: a total test score based on all 75 questions, and three reporting category scores based on specific knowledge and skills. The approximate percentage of the test devoted to each reporting category is:
Production of Writing (29–32%)
This category requires you to apply your understanding of the purpose •
and focus of a piece of writing. Topic Development: Demonstrate an understanding of, and control over, the rhetorical aspects of texts. Identify the purposes of parts of texts, determine whether a text or part of a text has met its intended goal, and evaluate the relevance
•
of material in terms of a text’s focus. Organization, Unity, and Cohesion: Use various strategies to ensure that a text is logically organized, flows smoothly, and has an effective introduction and conclusion. Knowledge of Language (13–19%)
These questions require you to demonstrate effective language use through ensuring precision and concision in word choice and maintaining consistency in style and tone.
Conventions of Standard English (51–56%)
These questions require you to apply an understanding of the conventions of standard English grammar, usage, and mechanics •
Sentence to Structure revise and and edit Formation: text.
Apply understanding of sentence structure and formation in a text and make
•
revisions Punctuation: to improve Recognize the common writing.
problems with standard English punctuation and make revisions to improve the
•
writing. Usage: Recognize common problems with standard English usage in a text and make revisions to improve the writing.
Tips for Taking the English Test ✓
Be aware of the writing style used in each passage.
The five passages cover a variety of topics and are written in a variety of styles. It is important that you take into account the writing style used in each passage. When responding to a question, be sure to understand the context of the question. Consider how the sentence containing an underlined portion fits in with the surrounding sentences and into the passage as a whole. ✓
Examine the underlined portions of the passage.
Before responding to a question with an underlined portion, carefully examine what is underlined in the text. Consider the elements •
Some questions of writing will included ask you in to each base underlined your decision portion.
on some specific element of writing, such as the tone or emphasis the
•
text Some should questions convey.
will ask you to choose the alternative to the underlined portion that is NOT or LEAST acceptable.
The answer choices for each question will contain changes in one or more of those elements of writing. ✓
Be aware of questions with no underlined portions.
You will be asked some questions about a section of the passage or about the passage as a whole, in light of a given rhetorical situation. Questions of this type are often identified by a question number in a box located at the appropriate point in the passage.
Questions about the entire passage are placed at the end of the passage and introduced by a horizontal box enclosing the following instruction: “Questions __ and __ ask about the preceding passage as a whole.” ✓
Note the differences in the answer choices.
Many of the questions in the test will involve more than one aspect of writing. Examine each answer choice and how it differs from the others. Be careful not to choose an answer that corrects one error but causes a different error. ✓
Determine the best answer.
When a question asks you to choose the best alternative to an underlined •
Decide how portion, the underlined consider the portion following might approach:
best be phrased in standard written English or in terms of the particular question ~
If the underlined posed.
portion is the best answer, select “NO ~
CHANGE.”
If not, check to see whether your phrasing is one of the other answer choices. If you do not find your phrasing, choose the best of the answers presented.
For questions cued by a number in a box, decide which choice is most appropriate in terms of the question posed or the stated rhetorical situation.
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✓
Reread the sentence, using your selected answer.
Once you have selected the answer you feel is best, reread the corresponding sentence(s) of the passage, inserting your selected answer at the appropriate place in the text to make sure it is the best answer within the context of the passage.
Mathematics Test
The mathematics test is a 60-question, 60-minute test designed to assess the mathematical skills students have typically acquired in courses taken up to the beginning of grade 12.
Most questions are self-contained. Some questions may belong to a set of several questions (e.g., each about the same graph or chart).
The material covered on the test emphasizes the major content areas that are prerequisites to successful performance in entry-level courses in college mathematics. Knowledge of basic formulas and computational skills are assumed as background for the problems, but recall of complex formulas and extensive computation are not required.
Note: You may use a calculator on the mathematics test. See www.act.org/calculator-policy.html for details about prohibited models and features.
Nine scores are reported for the mathematics test: a total test score based on all 60 questions and eight reporting category scores based on specific mathematical knowledge and skills. The approximate percentage of the test devoted to each reporting category is:
Preparing for Higher Mathematics (57–60%)
This category covers the more recent mathematics that students are learning, starting when they began using algebra as a general way of expressing and solving equations. This category is divided into five subcategories:
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Number and Quantity (7–10%): Demonstrate knowledge of real and complex number systems. Reason with numerical quantities in many forms, including expressions with integer and rational exponents, and vectors and matrices.
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Algebra (12–15%): Solve, graph, and model multiple types of expressions. Interpret and use many different kinds of equations, such as linear, polynomial, radical, and exponential relationships. Find solutions to systems of equations, even when represented by a simple matrix equation, and apply results to real-world contexts.
•
Functions (12–15%): Demonstrate knowledge of function: definition, notation, representation, and application. Use functions including linear, radical, piecewise, polynomial, and logarithmic. Manipulate and translate functions, as well as interpret and use important features of graphs.
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Geometry (12–15%): Apply your knowledge of shapes and solids, using concepts such as congruence and similarity relationships or surface area and volume measurements. Apply your understanding to composite objects, and solve for missing values in triangles, circles, and other figures. Use trigonometric ratios and equations of conic sections.
•
Statistics and Probability (8–12%): Describe center and spread of distributions. Apply and analyze data collection methods. Understand and model relationships in bivariate data. Calculate probabilities by recognizing the related sample spaces.
Integrating Essential Skills (40–43%)
This category focuses on measuring how well you can synthesize and apply your understandings and skills to solve more complex problems. The questions ask you to address concepts such as rates and percentages; proportional relationships; area, surface area, and volume; average and median; and expressing numbers in different ways. Solve nonroutine problems that involve combining skills in chains of steps; applying skills in varied contexts; understanding connections; and demonstrating fluency.
Modeling
This category represents all questions that involve producing, interpreting, understanding, evaluating, and improving models. Each question is also counted in other appropriate reporting categories above. This category is an overall measure of how well you use modeling skills across mathematical topics.
Tips for Taking the Mathematics Test ✓
If you use a calculator, use it wisely.
All of the mathematics problems can be solved without a calculator. Many of the problems are best done without a calculator. Use good judgment in deciding when, and when not, to use a calculator. For example, for some problems you may wish to do scratch work to clarify your thoughts on the question before you begin using a calculator to do computations. ✓
Solve the problem.
To work out solutions to the problems, you will usually do scratch work in the space provided. You may wish to glance over the answer choices after reading the questions. However, working backwards from all five answer choices can take a lot of time and may not be effective. ✓
Find your solution among the answer choices.
Once you have solved the problem, look for your answer among the choices. If your answer is not included among the choices, carefully reread the problem to see whether you missed important information. Pay careful attention to the question being asked. If an equation is to be selected, check to see whether the equation you think is best can be transformed into one of the answer choices provided. ✓
Make sure you answer the question.
The solutions to many questions on the test will involve several steps. Make sure your answer accounts for all the necessary steps. Frequently, an answer choice is an intermediate result, not the final answer.
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✓
Make sure your answer is reasonable. Sometimes an error in computation will result in an answer that is not practically possible for the situation described. Always think about your answer to determine whether it is reasonable. ✓
Check your answer. You may arrive at an incorrect solution by making common errors in the problem-solving process. If there is time remaining before the end of the mathematics test, it is important that you reread the questions and check your answers to make sure they are correct. Reading Test
The reading test is a 40-question, 35-minute test that measures your ability to read closely, reason logically about texts using evidence, and integrate information from multiple sources.
The test questions focus on the mutually supportive skills that readers must bring to bear in studying written materials across a range of subject areas. Specifically, questions will ask you to determine main ideas; locate and interpret significant details; understand sequences of events; make comparisons; comprehend cause-effect relationships; determine the meaning of context-dependent words, phrases, and statements; draw generalizations; analyze the author’s or narrator’s voice and method; analyze claims and evidence in arguments; and integrate information from multiple texts.
The test comprises four sections, three of which contain one long prose passage and one that contains two shorter prose passages. The passages represent the levels and kinds of text commonly encountered in first-year college curricula.
Each passage is preceded by a heading that identifies what type of passage it is (e.g., “Natural Science”), names the author and source, and may include important background information to help you understand the passage. Each section contains a set of multiple-choice test questions. These questions do not test the rote recall of facts from outside the passage or rules of formal logic, nor do they contain isolated vocabulary questions. In sections that contain two shorter passages, some of the questions involve both of those passages.
Five scores are reported for the reading test: a total test score based on all 40 questions; three reporting category scores based on specific knowledge and skills; and an Understanding Complex Texts indicator. The approximate percentage of the test devoted to each reporting category is:
Key Ideas and Details (55–60%) This category requires you to read texts closely to determine central ideas and themes. Summarize information and ideas accurately. Understand relationships and draw logical inferences and conclusions, including understanding sequential, comparative, and cause-effect relationships.
Craft and Structure (25–30%) These questions ask you to determine word and phrase meanings; analyze an author’s word choice rhetorically; analyze text structure; understand the author’s purpose and perspective; and analyze characters’ points of view. Interpret
authorial decisions rhetorically and differentiate between various perspectives and sources of information.
Integration of Knowledge and Ideas (13–18%)
This category requires you to understand authors’ claims, differentiate between facts and opinions, and use evidence to make connections between different texts that are related by topic. Some questions will require you to analyze how authors construct arguments, and to evaluate reasoning and evidence from various sources.
Tips for Taking the Reading Test ✓
Read each passage carefully.
Before you begin answering a question, read the entire passage (or two shorter passages) carefully. Be conscious of relationships between or among ideas. You may make notes in the test booklet about important ideas in the passages. ✓
Refer to the passages when answering the questions.
Answers to some of the questions will be found by referring to what is explicitly stated in the text of the passages. Other questions will require you to determine implicit meanings and to draw conclusions, comparisons, and generalizations. Consider the text before you answer any question.
Science Test
The science test is a 40-question, 35-minute test that measures the interpretation, analysis, evaluation, reasoning, and problem-solving skills required in the natural sciences. The test presents several authentic scientific scenarios, each followed by a number of multiple-choice test questions.
The content of the test includes biology, chemistry, Earth/ space sciences (e.g., geology, astronomy, and meteorology), and physics. Advanced knowledge in these areas is not required, but background knowledge acquired in general, introductory science courses may be needed to correctly answer some of the questions.
The science test focuses on multidimensional assessment, with questions that assess science content in concert with science skills and practices.
The questions require you to recognize and understand the basic features of, and concepts related to, the provided information; to examine critically the relationship between the information provided and the conclusions drawn or hypotheses developed; and to generalize from given information to gain new information, draw conclusions, or make predictions.
Note: You are not permitted to use a calculator on the science test.
The scientific information appears in one of three formats:
•
Data Representation (30–40%): This format presents graphic and tabular material similar to that found in science journals and texts. The questions associated with this format measure skills such as recognizing relationships among data in tables and graphs; interpolation and extrapolation; and translating tabular data into graphs.
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•
Research Summaries (45–55%): This format provides descriptions of one or more related experiments. The questions focus on the design of the experiments and the interpretation of experimental results.
•
Conflicting Viewpoints (15–20%): This format presents two or more explanations for the same scientific phenomena that, because they are based on differing premises or incomplete data, are inconsistent with one another. The questions focus on the understanding, analysis, and comparison of alternative viewpoints or hypotheses.
Four scores are reported for the science test: a total test score based on all 40 questions and three reporting category scores based on scientific knowledge, skills, and practices. The approximate percentage of the test devoted to each reporting category is: Interpretation of Data (45–55%)
This category asks you to manipulate and analyze scientific data presented in scientific tables, graphs, and diagrams (e.g., recognize trends in data, translate tabular data into graphs, interpolate and extrapolate, and reason mathematically).
Scientific Investigation (20–30%)
This category requires you to understand experimental tools, procedures, and design (e.g., identify controls and variables) and compare, extend, and modify experiments (e.g., predict the results of additional trials).
Evaluation of Models, Inferences, and Experimental Results (25–35%)
These questions ask you to judge the validity of scientific information and formulate conclusions and predictions based on that information (e.g., determine which explanation for a scientific phenomenon is supported by new findings).
Tips for Taking the Science Test ✓
Read the passage carefully.
Before you begin answering a question, read the scientific material provided. It is important that you read the entire text and examine any tables, graphs, or figures. You may want to make notes about important ideas in your test booklet. Some of the information sets will describe experiments. You should consider the experimental design, including the controls and variables, because questions are likely to address this component of scientific research. ✓
Note the different viewpoints in passages.
Some material will present conflicting viewpoints, and the questions will ask you to distinguish among them. It may be helpful for you to make notes summarizing each viewpoint next to that section in the test booklet.
Writing Test (Optional)
If you register for the ACT with writing, you will take the writing test after the four multiple-choice tests. Your score on the writing test will not affect your scores on the multiple-choice tests or your Composite score.
The writing test is a 40-minute essay test that measures your writing skills—specifically, writing skills taught in high school English classes and in entry-level college composition courses.
The test consists of one writing prompt that describes a complex issue and provides three different perspectives on the issue. You are asked to read the prompt and write an essay in which you develop your own perspective on the issue. Your essay must analyze the relationship between your own perspective and one or more other perspectives. You may adopt one of the perspectives given in the prompt as your own, or you may introduce one that is completely different from those given. Your score will not be affected by the perspective you take on the issue.
Five scores are reported for the writing test: a single subject- level writing score reported on a scale of 2–12, and four domain scores that are based on an analytic scoring rubric. The subject score is the rounded average of the four domain scores. The four writing domains are:
Ideas and Analysis
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to generate productive ideas and engage critically with multiple perspectives on the given issue. Competent writers understand the issue they are invited to address, the purpose for writing, and the audience. They generate ideas that are relevant to the situation.
Development and Support
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to discuss ideas, offer rationale, and bolster an argument. Competent writers explain and explore their ideas, discuss implications, and illustrate through examples. They help the reader understand their thinking about the issue.
Organization
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to organize ideas with clarity and purpose. Organizational choices are integral to effective writing. Competent writers arrange their essay in a way that clearly shows the relationship between ideas, and they guide the reader through their discussion.
Language Use and Conventions
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to use written language to convey arguments with clarity. Competent writers make use of the conventions of grammar, syntax, word usage, and mechanics. They are also aware of their audience and adjust the style and tone of their writing to communicate effectively.
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Tips for Taking the Writing Test ✓
Pace yourself.
Budget your time based on your experience in taking essay tests in school and in other circumstances when you have done writing within a time limit. It is unlikely that you will have time to draft, revise, and recopy your essay. ✓
Plan.
Before writing, carefully read and consider all prompt material. Be sure you understand the issue, the different perspectives on the issue, and your essay task.
Planning questions are included with the prompt that will help you analyze the different perspectives and develop your own. Use these questions to think critically about the prompt and generate an effective response. How would you best organize and support your ideas in a written argument? Use the planning space in your test booklet to structure or outline your response.
Note: The planning questions are optional and are not scored. ✓
Write.
Establish the focus of your essay by making clear your argument and •
Explain its main and ideas.
illustrate your ideas with sound reasoning and
•
meaningful Discuss the significance examples.
of your ideas: what are the implications of what you have to say, and why is your argument important to consider?
As you write, ask yourself if your logic is clear, if you have supported your claims, and if you have chosen precise words to communicate your ideas.
Note: If you take the ACT on paper, be sure to write (or print) your essay legibly. ✓
Review your essay.
Try to make your essay as polished as you can. Take a few minutes before time is called to read over your essay and correct any •
•
•
mistakes.
If you find words that are hard to read, recopy them.
Make corrections and revisions neatly, between the lines.
Do not write in the margins, if applicable. ✓
Practice.
There are many ways to prepare for the writing test. Read newspapers and magazines, watch/listen to news analyses online, on TV, or on radio, or participate in discussions and debates, thinking carefully about other perspectives in relation to your own.
One good way to prepare for the writing test is to practice writing with different purposes for different audiences. The writing you do in your classes will help you, as will writing a personal journal, stories, essays, editorials, or other writing you do on your own.
It is also a good idea to practice writing within a time limit. Taking the practice writing test will give you a sense of how much additional practice you may need. You might want to take the practice writing test even if you do not plan to take the ACT with writing. It will help you build skills that are important in college-level learning and the world of work.
Taking the Practice Tests
It is a good idea to take the practice tests under conditions as similar as possible to those you will experience on test day. The following •
tips will help you:
The four multiple-choice tests require 2 hours and 55 minutes to complete. Take them in order, in one sitting, with
•
a 10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2 and 3.
You will need only sharpened, soft lead No. 2 pencils and good erasers. Remove all other items from your desk. You
•
will not be allowed to use unapproved scratch paper.
If you plan to use a permitted calculator on the mathematics
•
test, use the same one you will use on test day.
Use a digital timer or clock to time yourself on each practice test. Set your timer for five minutes less than the time allowed for each test so you can get used to the verbal
•
•
announcement of five minutes remaining.
Give yourself only the time allowed for each test.
Detach and use the sample multiple-choice answer document on pages 63–64.
•
Read the test directions on the first page of each multiple- choice test. These are the same directions that will appear in
•
your Start test booklet on test day.
your timer and begin with Test 1. Continue through
•
Test 4, taking a 10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2 and 3.
Score your multiple-choice tests using the information
•
beginning If you plan on to take page the 56.
ACT with writing, read the directions on the first page of the practice ACT writing test (page 53). These are the same directions that will appear in your test booklet on test day. Start your timer, then read the prompt on page 54. After you understand what the prompt is asking you to do, plan your essay and then write or print it on lined paper. (On test day, your answer document will have lined pages on which you will write your essay.) Score your essay using the information on pages 61–62.
10
Practice Multiple-Choice Tests EXAMINEE STATEMENT, CERTIFICATION, AND SIGNATURE
1. Read the following Statement: By opening this test booklet, I agree to comply with and be bound by the Terms and Conditions: Testing Rules and Policies for the ACT® Test provided in the ACT registration materials for this test, including those concerning test security, score cancellation, examinee remedies, binding arbitration, and consent to the processing of my personally identifying information, including the collection, use, transfer, and disclosure of information as described in the ACT Privacy Policy (www.act.org/privacy.html). I understand that ACT owns the test questions and responses and affirm that I will not share any test questions or responses with anyone by any form of communication before, during, or after the test administration. I understand that assuming anyone else’s identity to take this test is strictly prohibited and may violate the law and subject me to legal penalties. International Examinees: By my signature, I am also providing my consent to ACT to transfer my personally identifying information to the United States to ACT, or a third-party service provider for processing, where it will be subject to use and disclosure under the laws of the United States. I acknowledge and agree that it may also be accessible to law enforcement and national security authorities in the United States.
2. Copy the Certification shown below (only the text in italics) on the lines provided. Write in your normal handwriting.
Certification: I agree to the Statement above and certify that I am the person whose name appears on this form.
3. Sign your name as you would any official document, enter today’s date, and print your name in the spaces provided.
Your Signature Today’s Date Print Your Name
Form 1874FPRE
Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics, reading, and science. These tests measure skills and abilities highly related to high school course work and success in college. Calculators may be used on the mathematics test only.
The questions in each test are numbered, and the suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best. Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make your marks heavy and black. Do not use ink or a mechanical pencil.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change your mind about an answer, erase your first mark thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals with the same number as the question.
©2018 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved. NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied, reproduced, sold, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
Only responses marked on your answer document will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only on the number of questions you answer correctly during the time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized for guessing. It is to your advantage to answer every question even if you must guess.
You may work on each test only when the testing staff tells you to do so. If you finish a test before time is called for that test, you should use the time remaining to reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that test. You may not look back to a test on which time has already been called, and you may not go ahead to another test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called at the end of each test. You may not for any reason fill in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
11
1 1 ENGLISH TEST 45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
1
2
2
3
12
You will also find questions about a section of the pas- sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box. For each question, choose the alternative you consider best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
Mystery Paper Sculptor
Between March and November of 2011, an
anonymous donor left intricately crafted paper sculptures
1. Which choice most effectively emphasizes the com-
at various cultural institutions in Edinburgh, Scotland.
plexity of the paper sculptures? A. NO CHANGE B. C. impressively
terrifically D. superbly
Delighted, each sculpture was left secretly and was later
2. F. NO CHANGE
G. Each sculpture was left secretly and later discov- discovered by staff. The delicate sculptures—streetscapes,
H. Left ered by secretly delighted and staff.
later discovered by staff, each plants, and animals—were carved exclusively from the
sculpture was delighted.
pages and bindings of books. The tiny details in the
J. Secretly by staff.
delighted, each sculpture was discovered
pieces are awe-inspiring.
The first sculpture discovered—at the Scottish
Poetry Library—was a tiny tree formed from a book
of verse. Library staff dubbed it the “poetree.” The
3. A. B. NO specified
CHANGE
tree sits atop a book. Beneath the tree are the halves of
C. adorned
a golden paper egg, each half filled with words clipped
D. honored
from the poem “A Trace of Wings” by Edwin Morgan.
ACT-1874FPRE
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1 1
At Edinburgh’s Filmhouse Cinema, a three-
4. F. NO CHANGE
4
G. Cinema, a three-dimensional sculpted, scene dimensional sculpted scene shows patrons
4
H. J. Cinema Cinema a a three-dimensional three-dimensional, sculpted sculpted, scene,
scene
sitting in a movie theater as horse leaps out of
5
5. A. B. NO movie CHANGE
theaters as horse’s leaps the screen. At the Scottish Storytelling Centre, a
C. a movie theater as horses leap D. movie theater’s as horse leap
dragon crafted from the pages of a mystery novel
6. F. NO CHANGE 6 was found nesting in a window. At the National
G. H. dragon—crafted dragon, crafted from from the the pages, pages
J. dragon crafted from the pages, Museum of Scotland, a paper tail was spotted emerging
from the spine of Sir Arthur Conan Doyle’s book
The Lost World. Inside, a dinosaur charges through
shredded pages of the open book. More creations
appeared at more than a few additional places where
7. A. NO CHANGE 7 literature and artifacts are related to books and writing.
B. a ing number intellectual of additional endeavors cultural dedicated institutions to promoting
support-
7
C. quite a lot of other cultural institutions character- D. ized several by libraries loyalty and and dedication museums devoted to
to
Therefore, a total of ten sculptures were bestowed on
8
8. F. G. NO Eventually,
CHANGE
special institutions, whose staff are thrilled by their luck.
H. Of course, J. However,
The creator of these sculptures are not known
9. A. NO CHANGE 9 because no one has claimed responsibility. So far, that
B. C. creators creator of of these this sculptures sculptures are
is D. creators of this sculptures is is. The last gift came with a note in which the mystery
artist reveals her gender. Whatever: whoever created
10. F. NO CHANGE 10
G. Disregarding who
the unknown identity of the person
H. Without consideration of or concern about whoever J. Regardless of who
the art, your intention is clear. Each gift came with a
11. A. NO CHANGE 11
B. C. whose her D. our
note expressing special gratitude for “libraries, books,
12. F. NO CHANGE
12
G. note of gratitude expressing special gratefulness H. and thank-you thanks
note on each one expressing special thanks J. thankful note expressing special thanks
words, ideas.” -
13. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the
paragraph would primarily lose a statement that: A. suggests the essay writer knows the identity of the B. artist.
explains why the artist created the sculptures. C. proves the artist is a woman. D. indicates the artist is a librarian.
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1 1
Ironically, the creator of these exquisite
sculptures who destroyed books—cutting them
14
up with refashioning them into elaborate works
15 of art—as “a tiny gesture in support of the special
places.” The mystery artist celebrated the magic of
those places and, at the same time, made some magic.
PASSAGE II
Building a Cork Boat
[1]
As a young boy, John Pollack dreamed of
building a full-size boat made entirely of bottle
corks. [A] At the age of thirty-four, Pollack sailed
his dream down the Douro River in Portugal. It
all began as Pollack is likely to point out, with
16 a single cork.
[2]
To amass the staggering number of corks needed to
construct the boat, 165,231 in all, Pollack convinced the
17 staff, of several restaurants in Washington, DC, to donate
17 discarded corks for his cause. [
B
18
19
14
14. F. G. NO for whom CHANGE
books were destroyed— H. as she destroyed books— J. destroyed books—
15. A. NO CHANGE
B. C. and nor D. so
16. F. NO CHANGE
G. began, as Pollack is likely to point out, H. J. began, began as as Pollack Pollack is is likely likely to to point point out out
17. A. B. NO boat CHANGE
(165,231) in all, Pollack convinced the staff of several restaurants,
] Pollack eventually
C. boat—165,231 of several restaurants
in all—Pollack convinced the staff
D. boat, 165,231, in all, Pollack convinced the staff of
several restaurants
received cork donations from a cork-importing company
18. F. NO CHANGE
based in Portugal.
G. H. donations, donations, from from a a cork-importing cork-importing company, company J. donations from a cork-importing company, [3]
Constructing the boat introduced a challenge
of another variety. Pollack finally tried gluing the
19. A. NO CHANGE
B. next corks together to create stackable logs, but he soon
C. D. first also realized that this strategy was too time-consuming. [C]
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1 1
He calculated that it would have taken him and one
other person more then a year’s worth of eight-hour
20 days to glue all the corks needed for the boat.
[4]
Piles of corks threatened to take over Pollack’s 21 apartment. He used a foam template to assemble a
21
group of corks into a pretty interesting shape. He
22 then fastened each cluster of corks with multiple
rubber bands and encased each cluster in fishnet.
To bind clusters together and shaping them into flexible
23 columns proved to be both efficient and architecturally
sound. Dozens of friends expedited this proper process
24 by volunteering to help with the construction of the boat.
[5]
The completed cork boat, which resembled a Viking
ship, was more impressive than Pollack had ever imagined.
[D] In his childhood imagination, he had saw himself
25 floating the boat in his neighbor’s swimming pool. But
at a length of twenty-two feet, Pollack’s masterpiece
26
was best suited with a grand voyage. In 2002, the
27
company that had donated thousands of corks to
28 Pollack’s project sponsored the vessel’s launch in
Portugal. There, during the boat’s successful journey
on the Douro River, in the country of Portugal, Pollack’s
29 dream was fully realized.
20. F. G. NO than CHANGE
a year’s H. than a years’ J. then a years
21. Which choice most effectively introduces the paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE B. Over vinced the people course to help.
of many months, Pollack con-
C. Pollack was afraid that he would have to put his D. cork After boat a series dream of on trials, hold.
Pollack devised a workable strategy.
22. Which choice provides the most specific description of
the assembled groups of corks? F. NO CHANGE G. hexagonal H. J. certain
DELETE the underlined portion.
23. A. B. NO Binding CHANGE
clusters together and to shape C. Binding clusters together and shaping D. Binding clusters together and shape
24. Which choice best indicates that constructing the cork
boat was challenging? F. NO CHANGE G. H. authentic
rigorous J. grim
25. A. B. NO had CHANGE
seen himself C. seen himself D. saw him
26. F. NO CHANGE
G. H. length, length of of twenty-two twenty-two feet; feet,
J. length of twenty-two feet
27. A. NO CHANGE
B. most well suited to C. D. better best suited suited as
for
28. F. G. NO company, CHANGE
which H. company whom J. company, who
29. A. B. NO River, CHANGE
which is a river in Portugal, C. River in Portugal, D. River,
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1 1
Question 30 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.
31
32
33
34
30. The essay:
writer wants to add the following sentence to the
“Remember,” daily pickups, “every he would cork say counts.”
as he made his
The sentence would most logically be placed at: F. Point A in Paragraph 1. G. H. Point Point B C in in Paragraph Paragraph 2. 3. J. Point D in Paragraph 5.
PASSAGE III
Lightning in the Sand
As my friend Anna and I walked the sand dunes
of southeastern New Mexico, she told me that she
hoped we’d find a fulgurite, one as translucent white
as the southeastern New Mexico sands around us. A
31. A. B. NO and CHANGE
nearly transparent to the eye almost as the fulgurite—whose name stems from the Latin word
white sands of these dunes.
fulgur, which means “thunderbolt”—is a hollow silica
C. D. as DELETE these sands.
the underlined portion and end the sen- tence with a period. glass tube formed when lightning strikes sand. A fulgurite
is created in one explosive second by fusion and pressure
as sand heated by a lightning blast melts, and becomes
32. F. NO CHANGE
G. sand heated (by a lightning blast) melts glass. Commonly called “petrified lightning,” a fulgurite
H. J. sand, sand heated heated by by a a lightning lightning blast blast melts
melts,
places the shape of a miniature lightning bolt into the
33. Which emphasizing choice the best dramatic builds on nature the preceding of the mark sentence a fulgu- by
earth, often branching deep into the ground.
rite leaves on the earth? A. NO CHANGE Anna told me that I had possibly seen a small
B. sketches
fragment of a fulgurite before, without realizing I had,
C. D. burns sends
on a beach. She explained though that even experts
34. F. G. NO explained, CHANGE
though, that even experts are rarely able to locate a fully intact fulgurite.
H. explained though that, even experts, J. explained, though that even experts
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1 1
The thin, brittle glass tubes break easily. Occasionally,
35. Given that all the statements are true, which one pro-
35
vides the most relevant information at this point in the after strong, sustained winds have shifted desert sands,
essay? A. NO CHANGE B. Human-made vate than naturally fulgurites occurring are not fulgurites.
any easier to exca-
C. A fulgurite is not a geode (a crystal-lined stone), D. though Still, pieces the two of fulgurite are often can confused.
be worked into jewelry.
while an unbroken, previously buried fulgurite will be
36
36. F. G. NO however
CHANGE
revealed, showing as a tube protruding from the ground.
H. so J. DELETE the underlined portion.
E I scanned the area, hopeful that I’d see a tube newly
37. Which of the following sentences, if added here, best
connects follows in the the preceding paragraph?
sentence to the information that
A. Anna shower told in the me area that the there day before.
had been a brief rain
B. I could see bright pink sand verbenas blooming in C. the Swift distance.
winds were moving the white sands that day. D. Dig carefully.
uncovered. Anna made clear that we’d be lucky to come
38. F. NO CHANGE
38
G. uncovered, I focused my gaze on the sands in the upon a small piece of fulgurite, just a few inches long.
H. distance.
uncovered, I looked closely. Anna had shown me fulgurites she had found
J. had it been uncovered.
on other trips. Their colors ranged from black to
brown to green, corresponding to the color of the
sand in which she had discovered them. I wasn’t
surprised that I’d never recognized fulgurites on
any beach: no one had ever told me what to look for.
39
39. Which and leads choice into most the effectively information concludes that follows this sentence in the paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. I focus on looking for seashells, sand dollars, and C. smooth usually, rocks I’m not when in the I’m mood walking for the a science sands.
project when I’m on vacation. D. branches.
on their surface, they look like pieces of tree
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1 1
Their interiors, though, are smooth, clear glass stained
40. Which choice makes clearest the light, sporadic
40
arrangement of the bubbles in the glass? F. NO CHANGE G. pointed H. J. speckled
covered
with tiny bubbles trapped formed by air and moisture
41
41. The be:
best placement for the underlined portion would
during the rapid cooling of the melted sand after the
lightning strike.
42
44
45
18
A. B. where after the it is word now.
bubbles. C. after the word during. We continued exploring the dunes.
D. after the word cooling.
Anna laughed and said we needed only
to stop at the local gift shop to unearth
42. F. NO CHANGE
G. for having unearthed H. J. that unearthing
would unearth
our treasure. K But given
43. If would the writer primarily deleted lose the a:
preceding sentence, the essay
A. frustration bluntly critical with comment trying to that find makes a white clear fulgurite Anna’s in the sand dunes of New Mexico. B. mildly impatience scolding with response the time by and Anna attention to the narrator’s it might take for them to find a white fulgurite. C. by light Anna moment about in how the easy form it of could a good-natured be to find a white joke
fulgurite. D. moment they could of easily excitement find a when white Anna fulgurite remembers at the local that
gift shop.
our luck finding fulgurites in
44. F. NO CHANGE
G. her H. J. my
their
deserts and on beaches, she wanted to
45. Which portion of would the following provide the alternatives essay with to new the information? underlined
keep searching to find our own piece
of bright, white lightning in the sand.
A. B. beaches beaches, in but Florida, so far not Utah, this California, day in the and New Nevada,
Mexico sands, C. D. beaches, beaches, in even other a green words, fulgurite,
sandy locales,
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1 1
PASSAGE IV
Planet Earth’s Windiest Observatory
[1]
Step outside into blowing snow, freezing fog, 45 mph
winds with hurricane-force gusts, and a –50° Fahrenheit
windchill. Welcome to a typical January day at the Mount
Washington Observatory. [
A
] Weather conditions at this
facility, which sits atop its namesake’s 6,288-foot peak
46
46. F. G. NO their
CHANGE
H. these J. it’s
in New Hampshire, has earned the location the nickname
47. A. NO CHANGE 47 “Home of the World’s Worst Weather.”
B. C. Hampshire, Hampshire has have earned
earned
D. Hampshire, earns [2]
[B] Though somewhat diminutive compared
to other mountains, (Colorado’s Pikes Peak, for
48. F. NO CHANGE
48
G. mountains (Colorado’s Pikes Peak, example, is more than twice its height), Mount Washington
H. J. mountains, mountains (Colorado’s (Colorado’s Pikes Pikes Peak Peak
is the tallest peak in the Presidential Range. The peak
49
49. Given uses a that comparison all the choices to emphasize are accurate, that the which weather one best on stands at the confluence of three major storm tracks,
Mount Washington can be extreme? A. NO CHANGE B. is much colder at the summit than at the base of C. the has mountain.
an average midwinter temperature of 5° Fahrenheit. D. has weather that rivals that of Antarctica.
and its steep slopes force rising winds to accelerate.
50. F. NO CHANGE 50 In fact, scientists in 1934 recorded a surface wind
G. H. its if its steep steep slopes slopes that force
force
J. its steep slopes forcing
speed (of 231 mph): one of the fastest ever recorded.
51. A. NO CHANGE
51
B. speed of 231 mph— C. D. speed speed, of of 231 231 mph; mph,
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1 1
[3]
In one study, researchers used a laser beam and
advanced optical techniques to measure winds. The
observatory also keeps detailed weather records that
scientists have used to track climate trends and weather
patterns. The observatory has also advanced scientists’
52
understanding of clouds, of ice physics, and the
53 atmosphere.
[4]
To conduct all this research, staff are on-site
year-round. Observers, who work several twelve-hour
54 shifts over the course of a week. To change personnel
in winter, though, crews ascend the mountain in a
55
vehicle, gripping the snow using revolving tracks similar
56 to those on a military tank. Observers go outside every
hour to gather data, which they send to the National
Weather Service. [
C
57
58
20
52. F. NO CHANGE
G. H. In Additionally, addition, the
the J. Also, the
53. A. NO CHANGE
B. furthered our knowledge of ice physics, C. D. as ice well physics,
as ice physics,
54. F. G. NO Observers CHANGE
who work H. Observers work J. Observers, working
55. A. NO CHANGE
B. C. winter, winter, of however,
course,
D. winter,
56. F. NO CHANGE
G. vehicle while gripping J. H. vehicle vehicle that and grip
grips
]
[5]
Though isolated, the Mount Washington Observatory
offers weather enthusiasts many ways to get involved.
The observatory takes volunteers and accepts interns,
who assist with research. The bold can take part in
57. A. NO CHANGE
educational trips to the summit in winter. [
D
] For those
B. C. research research and but the the
D. research, the
who are planning to make a trip to Mount Washington,
58. Which choice contrasts most directly with the other ways to get involved at the observatory that are men- the observatory has a website with live video feeds of
tioned in the paragraph?
the summit.
F. NO CHANGE G. H. prefer conduct a warm weather recliner research,
to an icy peak,
J. love the outdoors,
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1 1
Questions 59 and 60 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
61
62
63 59. The writer is considering adding the following sen-
60. Suppose the writer’s main purpose had been to tence to the essay:
This information is used to help create
describe Would this how essay mountain accomplish ranges that affect purpose?
weather patterns.
regional weather forecasts. If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most logically be placed at: A. Point A in Paragraph 1. B. C. Point Point B C in in Paragraph Paragraph 2. 4. D. Point D in Paragraph 5.
F. Yes, Washington because increase it discusses wind how speeds.
the slopes of Mount
G. Yes, because it describes the weather conditions H. on No, the because summit it of outlines Mount Washington.
the history of the Mount Washington Observatory. J. No, Washington because Observatory it provides an and overview its research.
of the Mount
PASSAGE V
The Real McCoy
[1]
“It’s the real McCoy.” You might have heard this
expression before, but who—or what—is a McCoy, real
or otherwise? The saying has been used for generations
to declare its’ the genuine article, the original and best.
61. A. NO CHANGE
B. its something that’s [A] While its origin is disputed, many people believe the
C. D. that that something its
is
expression was inspired by the inventions of a Canadian
American engineer named, Elijah McCoy. McCoy, a
62. F. NO CHANGE
G. American engineer named railroad worker who, as a teenager, had formally studied
H. J. American, American, engineer engineer named, named mechanical engineering, revolutionized railroad and
factory operations, affecting both incredibly with his
63. A. NO CHANGE
B. operations, changing both of these industries dozens of patented products.
C. fundamentally
operations, so that they would never be the same D. operations
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2121
1 1
[2]
While working for the Michigan Central Railroad in
the 1870s, then McCoy was assigned to work on the wheel
64
bearings and axles of trains. a Trains needed to come to
a halt after only a few miles of travel so that the moving
parts could be oiled by hand—a tedious, time-consuming
process. McCoy invented a device that released oil while
a train was in motion, substantially reducing the number
66
of maintenance stops had the effect of making travel more
67 efficient. [B] This automatic lubricating device became the
first of his fifty-seven patents.
[3]
McCoy applied the principles of this invention to
other engineering challenges. Factories in the late 1800s,
for example, increasingly relied on steam engines to
68
power factory machines. As with trains, therefore
69 many of the machines’ parts had to be oiled manually.
McCoy, recognizing the similarities between train
70 wheels and factory machines, designed automated
oilers for steam engines. These innovations allowed
22
64. F. NO CHANGE
G. H. with during that this company
time J. DELETE the underlined portion.
65. In the preceding sentence, the writer is considering revising the phrase “assigned to work on” to “responsi- ble rate, for should oiling.” the writer Given make that the this revised revision?
phrase is accu-
A. Yes, procedures because McCoy the revision had to specifically follow as he describes maintained the
the wheel bearings and axles of trains. B. Yes, nection because between the McCoy’s revision provides main task a as clearer a railroad con-
worker and his first patented device. C. No, McCoy because chose the to revision oil the wheel doesn’t bearings indicate and whether axles of trains by hand. D. No, whether because McCoy the had revision worked doesn’t on trains make for other clear
railroad companies.
66. F. NO CHANGE
G. lessening the frequency of number H. J. subtracting lowering the the amount
amount
67. A. B. NO and CHANGE
making C. helping to make D. made
68. F. G. NO subsequently,
CHANGE
H. regardless, J. however,
69. A. NO CHANGE
B. C. the in that
problem being
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
70. F. NO CHANGE
G. McCoy would recognize H. J. McCoy, McCoy recognized
a recognition of
ACT-1874FPRE
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1 1
factories to give machines a certain timelessness,
71. Which choice offers the clearest and most precise
71
information about how the operation of factory machines changed as a result of McCoy’s innovations? A. NO CHANGE B. C. rethink run machines operations,
continuously, D. use machines differently,
increasing factory productivity and, as a result, profits. h
72. The writer is considering deleting the following phrase from the preceding sentence (ending the sentence with a period):
and, as a result, profits. Should the writer make this deletion? F. Yes, paragraph because from the the phrase use of shifts McCoy’s the inventions focus of the in factories to factory disputes. G. Yes, owners because were more the phrase interested suggests in profits that than factory in which of McCoy’s devices would best meet their [4]
H. needs.
No, because the phrase is relevant to the para- McCoy’s inventions were an instant success. [C] Not
graph’s discussion of the positive effects that the
surprisingly, other inventors inundated the market with
J. No, use of because McCoy’s the inventions phrase makes had in clear factories.
that the suc- cessful use of McCoy’s inventions in factories led similar—and usually inferior—devices. [D] Supposedly,
to higher wages for factory workers.
factory owners who wanted a product proven to do it
73. A. NO CHANGE 73 would ask if their purchase was “the real McCoy.”
B. C. lend give off itself the to best superiority
result D. work well McCoy’s inventions would continue to benefit industries
in the United States well into the twentieth century, as his
74. Which choice best concludes the essay by reiterating 74 name became synonymous with quality and authenticity.
its main idea? F. NO CHANGE 74
G. so, into not the surprisingly, National Inventors in 2001 Hall McCoy of Fame, was inducted located in Alexandria, Virginia. H. even manufacturing having applications industry of in the the 1940s.
booming aluminum
J. making this story, for so many reasons, “the gen-
uine article.”
Question 75 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.
75. The statement writer to is the considering essay:
adding the following true
products—often The imitators expected significantly that the lower price than of their the price of McCoy’s devices—would attract buyers, but price didn’t seem to matter most. If the writer were to add this statement, it would most logically be placed at: A. Point A in Paragraph 1. B. C. Point Point B C in in Paragraph Paragraph 2. 4. D. Point D in Paragraph 4.
END OF TEST 1 STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
ACT-1874FPRE
2323
2 2 MATHEMATICS TEST 60 Minutes—60 Questions
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document. Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in the time you have left for this test. You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
ACT-1874FPRE
but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator. Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be assumed. 1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane. 3. The word line indicates a straight line. 4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
1. Marcus’s makes 6 servings. favorite casserole Marcus will recipe modify requires the 3 recipe eggs and by
5. A bills, wallet and 8 containing twenty-dollar 5 five-dollar bills is found bills, and 7 returned ten-dollar to using 5 eggs and increasing all other ingredients in the
its owner. The wallet’s owner will reward the finder recipe servings proportionally. the modified recipe What will is make?
the total number of
with the probability 1 bill drawn that randomly the bill from drawn the will wallet. be a What twenty- is
A. B. 06 08
24
dollar bill?
C. 10
A. D. E. 12 15
B.
2. The student 35-member government History representative. Club is meeting The to members choose a
C.
decide that the representative, who will be chosen at random, What is the CANNOT probability be any that of Hiroko, the 3 officers who is of a the member club.
D.
of the club but NOT an officer, will be chosen?
E.
F. 0
G.
6. The $2 per ABC book Book read Club in that charges month. a $40 The monthly Easy Book fee, Club plus
H.
J.
charges a $35 monthly fee, plus $3 per book read in that read month. in 1 month For for each the club, total how charges many from books each must club be to be equal?
K.
F. 01 G. 04
3. For what value of x is the equation 22x + 7 = 215 true?
H. J. 05 06 A. B. 02 04
K. 75
C. 11 D. E. 16 44
7. In parallelogram ABCD below, AC
4. Let What the is function the value f of be f(3) defined ?
as f(x) = 5x2 − 7(4x + 3).
F. G. −18 −26 H. −33 J. K. −60 −75
1___ 20 4___ 51 1__ 8 2__ 5 2__ 3
4___ 35 1___ 35 1__ 3 1___ 32
40°
___
is a diagonal, the measure 57°. What of is ∠ABC the measure is 40°, of and ∠CAD the measure ?
of ∠ACD is
A. B. 40° 57° C. 77° D. E. 83° 97°
C
D 57°
?
B A
24
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2 2
8x 8. When x = 1__
2
, what is the value of 3______
x − ?
F. 0
1__ 2 G. 02
H. 0
5__ 2 J. 05
K. 10
9. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what is the midpoint of the line segment that has endpoints (3,8) and (1,−4) ?
A. (−2,−12)
B. (−1,0−6) C. \ ,− 3__ 2
/ D. ( 2,0 2)
E. ( 4,−12)
10. The fluctuation of water depth at a pier is shown in the positive figure below. difference, One of in feet, the following between the values greatest gives water the
depth and the least water depth shown in this graph. Which value is it?
F. 03 G. H. 06 09 J. 12 K. 19
11. What is the slope of the line through (−2,1) and (2,−5)
in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane?
A.
B. 1
C. −1
D. −
E. −4
12. In Cherokee County, the fine for speeding is $17 for each mile per hour the driver is traveling over the posted fined $221 speed for limit. speeding In on Cherokee a road with County, a posted Kirk speed was
limit of 30 mph. Kirk was fined for traveling at what speed, in miles per hour? F. 13 G. H. 17 43 J. 47 K. 60
13. What is the sum of the solutions of the 2 equations
below?
00008x = 12 2y + 10 = 22
A. 02
B. 07
C. 09
D. 10
E. 17
14. The average of 5 distinct scores has the same value as the 420. median What is of the the sum 5 scores. of the The 4 scores sum of that the are 5 scores NOT the is
median? F. 315 G. 320 H. J. 336 350 K. 360
15. What is the value of the expression below?
⎪⎪−8 + 4⎪−⎪3 − 9⎪⎪ A. −18 B. C. 0−2 00 D. 02 E. 18
16. Which of the following expressions is equivalent
to x ?
F.
G.
H.
2__ 11___ 2
5 1__ 2
1__ 2
12 ) t e e f ( h t p e d
10 8 6 4 2 0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
number of hours after 6 a.m.
2__ 3
___ x2
3__ 2
3 ____ x(2) 3 √•• x3
3__ 2
J. 3√•x
K. 3√•• x2
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17. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what is the slope
of the line given by the equation 4x = 7y + 5 ?
A. −
B.
C.
D. 4
E. 7
18. For which of the following conditions will the sum of
integers m and n always be an odd integer? F. m is an odd integer. G. n is an odd integer. H. J. m m and and n n are are both both odd even integers.
integers. K. m is an odd integer and n is an even integer.
19. The lengths of the 2 legs of right triangle AABC shown
below are given in inches. The midpoint of AB
26
22. The length of a rectangle is 5 inches longer than the width. The perimeter of the rectangle is 40 inches.
4__ 7 4__ 7 7__ 4
What is the width of the rectangle, in inches? F. 07.5 G. H. 08 15 J. 16 K. 17.5
23. 8% of 60 is of what number?
A. 000,0.96 B. C. 00,12 00,24 D. 0,240 E. 3,750
24. Armin to his college is trying basketball to decide whether team’s 20 to buy home a season games pass this season. The cost of an individual ticket is $14, and the cost admit of Armin a season to pass any is home $175. basketball The season game pass at will no additional cost. What is the minimum number of home basketball order for the games cost of Armin a season must pass attend to be this less season than the in
total cost of buying an individual ticket for each game he attends? F. 08 G. H. 09 12 J. 13 K. 20
25. = ? C
24 B A. 3.0 × 104
B. 3.0 × 10−4 C. 3.0 × 10−18 D. 3.2 × 1018 E. 3.2 × 104
26. A circle in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane has center C(−1,2) and passes through A(2,6). Line segment AB
1__ 5
___
is how many inches from A ?
A
A. 16
32 B. 20 C. D. 21 28 E. 40
_________ 4.8 × 10−7 1.6 × 10−11
20. In length ADEF, of EF ___
the is length of DE ___
is √••30 inches, and the is the length, in inches, 3 inches. of If DF ___
it can ?
ACT-1874FPRE
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. be determined, what
F. 0003 G. √••30 H. √••33 J. √••39 K. Cannot be determined from the given information
21. Laura plans to paint the 8-foot-high rectangular walls of her room, and before she buys paint she needs to know walls are the 10 area feet of wide, the wall and the surface other to 2 be walls painted. are 15 Two feet wide. The combined area of the 1 window and the 1 in door square in feet, her room of the is wall 60 square surface feet. Laura What plans is to the paint? area,
A. B. 200 340 C. 360 D. E. 390 400
___
is a diameter of this circle. What are the coordinates of point B ? F. (−6,−2) G. H. (−5,−1) (−4,−2) J. ( 4,02) K. ( 5,10)
27. Which of the following expressions is a factor of
x3 − 64 ? A. x − 04 B. x + 04 C. x + 64 D. x2 + 16 E. x2 − 04x + 16
26
2 2
28. The average of a list of 4 numbers is 90.0. A new list of 4 numbers has the same first 3 numbers as the original is 80, and list, the but fourth the number fourth number in the new in the list original is 96. What list
is the average of this new list of numbers? F. 90.0 G. 91.5 H. J. 94.0 94.5 K. 94.8
Use the following information to answer questions 32–34.
29. The below.
number a is located at −2.5 on the number line
One of the following number lines shows the location of a2. Which number line is it?
30. Maria ordered a pizza. She ate only of it and gave the remaining pizza to her 3 brothers. What fraction of the whole pizza will each of Maria’s brothers receive, if they share the remaining pizza equally?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
31. The number 1,001 is the product of the prime numbers 7, 11, and 13. Knowing this, what is the prime factorization of 30,030 ? A. 3 · 7 · 10 · 13 B. C. 30 2 · · 5 7 · · 7 11 · 11 · 13
· 13 D. 3 · 7 · 10 · 11 · 13 E. 2 · 3 · 5 · 7 · 11 · 13
Mikea, an intern with the Parks and Recreation
a
−8 −6 −4 −2 420 6
8 Department, trapezoidal Springdale is developing Park. The a proposal figure below for shows the new her scale drawing of the proposed park with 3 side lengths and the Mikea’s radius scale of drawing, the merry-go-round 1 inch represents given 1.5 feet.
in inches. In
A.
B.
C.
32. What is the area, in square inches, of the scale drawing
D.
of the park? F. 0,448 G. 0,544
E.
−8 −6 −4 −2 420 6
8 H. J. 0,640 0,672 K. 1,088
33. Mikea’s proposal includes installing a fence on the perimeter of the park. What is the perimeter, in feet, of the park? A. 084 B. C. 088 104 D. 126 E. 156
34. The length of the south side of the park is what percent
of the length of the north side?
F. 112%
G. 124%
H. 142 %
J. 175%
K. 250%
28 inches a2
−8 −6 −4 −2 420 6
8 a2
4 −8 −6 −4 −2 420 6
8 slide
climber
s e h c n i 6 1 merry-go-round
sandbox a2
40 inches −8 −6 −4 −2 420 6
8 a2
−8 −6 −4 −2 420 6
8 a2
2__ 9
7__ 9 3__ 7 1__ 3
6__ 7 7___ 27 2___ 27
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Use the following information to answer questions 35–37.
28
37. Mr. and Mrs. Smith plan to roof the cabin on 2 consecutive days. Assuming that the chance of rain is independent will rain both of days?
the day, what is the probability that it
The Smith family is planning to build a 3-room cabin
A. B. 0.04 0.08 which consists of 2 bedrooms (BR) and 1 living room (LR). Shown below are the rectangular floor plan (left figure) and a side view of the cabin (right figure). In the
C. 0.16 D. E. 0.20 0.40
side view, the roof forms walls is an isosceles are perpendicular the midpoint of ___
AC
, to and the BF ___
level ⊥ ___ AC
floor .
triangle _ED ___
+, (AABC), ___
AC
i ED ___
the , F
38. Which equals an of irrational the following number?
expressions, when evaluated,
F.
G.
H. _√•8+
During the week the Smiths plan to roof the cabin, there is a 20% chance of rain each day.
35. Mr. Smith plans to build a 3-foot-wide walkway around the outside of the cabin, as shown in the floor plan. surface What of the will walkway?
be the area, in square feet, of the top
A. B. 171 324 C. 360 D. E. 396 720
36. Mrs. Smith will install a ceiling fan in each room of the Each cabin of the and ceiling will place fans curtains has a price over of the $52.00. 4 windows. The price of curtains for each small window (S) is $39.50, and twice the that price for of the curtains small for window. the large Based window on (L) this is
information, which of the following values is closest to the ceiling total fans?
price Mrs. Smith will pay for curtains and
F. G. $262 $302 H. $341 J. K. $354 $393
24′
B
36′ 30′
A
F
30′
√•2____ S
√•8
LR
S
30° 30°
√•8____ √•2
L
C
2
S
BR
BR
closet
1.5′ 1.5′
E
24′
D J. √•2 × √•8
walkway
K. √•2 + √•8
39. A standard line through (x,y) coordinate the origin plane and (10,4) below. is The shown acute in angle the
between the line and the positive x-axis has measure θ. What is the value of tan,θ ?
A.
√••29_____ 2
y
(10,4)
B.
2_____ √••29
C.
5_____ √••29
O
θ
x
D.
2__ 5
E.
5__ 2 40. The equation ⎪2x − 8⎪ + 3 = 5 has 2 solutions. Those solutions are equal to the solutions to which of the following pairs of equations? F. −2x 2x − − 5 5 = = −5 5
G. −2x 2x − − 8 8 = = 2 2 H. −(2x 2x − − 8) 8 = = 8 8 J. −(2x 2x − − 8) 8 = = 2 8 K. −(2x 2x − − 8) 8 = = 2 2
ACT-1874FPRE
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41. The frequency chart below shows the cumulative number of Ms. Hernandez’s science students whose test scores scores are whole fell within numbers.
certain score ranges. All test
How many students have a test score in the interval 71−80 ? A. 01 B. C. 06 08 D. 12 E. 13
42. The number of decibels, d, produced by an audio source can be modeled by the equation d = 10 log\ /, where I is the sound intensity of the audio source and K is a constant. How many decibels are produced by an audio source whose sound intensity is 1,000 times the value of K ?
F. 00,004 G. H. 00,030 00,040 J. 00,100 K. 10,000
43. Mario table below plays gives basketball Mario’s on a scoring town league statistics team. for The last season. How many points did Mario score playing basketball last season?
A. B. 129 190 C. 213 D. E. 330 380
44. The graph of y = ⎪x − 6⎪ is in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. Which of the following transforma- tions, when applied to the graph of y = ⎪x⎪, results in the graph of y = ⎪x − 6⎪ ?
Score range
Cumulative of students
number
65−70 65−80 65−90
F. Translation to the right 6 coordinate units
12 13 19
G. H. Translation Translation to up the 6 coordinate left 6 coordinate units
units
J. Translation down 6 coordinate units K. Reflection across the line x = 6
065−100
21
45. He Toby fills wants a rectangular to find the container volume 8 of cm a solid long, toy 6 cm soldier. wide, and 10 cm high with water to a depth of 4 cm. Toby totally height of submerges the water the with toy the soldier submerged in the toy water. soldier The is 6.6 cm. Which of the following is closest to the volume, in cubic centimeters, of the toy soldier? A. 125 B. C. 156 192 I__ K
D. 208 E. 317
46. A box in the shape of a cube has an interior side length of cylinder 18 inches with and a radius is used of 6 to inches ship a and right a height circular of 12 inches. The interior of the box not occupied by the cylinder following is numerical filled with expressions packing material. gives the Which number of the of cubic inches of the box filled with packing material?
F. 6(18)2 − 2π(6)(12) − 2π(6)2 G. 6(18)2 − 2π(6)(12) H. 183 − π(6)(12)2 J. 183 − π(6)2(12) K. 183 − π(12)3
Number
Percent Type of shot
attempted
successful
1-point free throw 80 75% 2-point field goal 60 90% 3-point field goal 60 25%
47. A 21 room feet. What has is a the rectangular area of the floor floor that in square is 15 yards feet by
? A. B. 024 035 C. 036 D. E. 105 144
ACT-1874FPRE
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48. ABC Cabs and Tary Taxicabs both have an initial fare of a whole number of dollars for 1 passenger. The fare increases number of a miles whole traveled. number The of graphs dollars below at each show whole the 1-passenger fares, in dollars, for both cab companies for companies trips up are to compared, 6 miles. When what is the the fares cheaper of the fare 2 for cab a 5-mile trip?
F. $08 G. H. $09 $10 J. $11 K. $12
49. The graph of a function y = f(x) consists of 3 line segments. endpoints The of the graph 3line and segments the coordinates are shown of the in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below. What is the area, by the in graph square of coordinate y = f(x), the units, positive of the region y-axis, bounded and the positive x-axis?
A. 10 B. C. 13 14 D. 15 E. 20
50. The sum of 2 positive numbers is 151. The lesser number is 19 more than the square root of the greater number. the lesser What number?
is the value of the greater number minus
F. G. 019 066 H. 085 J. K. 091 121
51. The list of numbers 41, 35, 30, X, Y, 15 has a median of 25. The mode of the list of numbers is 15. To the nearest whole number, what is the mean of the list? A. 20 B. C. 25 26 D. 27 E. 30 ABC Cabs
52. You are given the following system of equations:
y = x2 rx + sy = t where r, s, and t are integers. For which of the following
f
Tary Taxicabs
14
14 12
12 ) $ ( e r a
10 08 06
) $ ( e r a f
10
04 02 00
0 2 4 6
miles
08 06 04 02 00
0 2 4 6
miles
will real-number there be coordinates, more than for the one system?
(x,y) solution, with
F. r2 + 4st > 0 G. s2 − 4rt > 0 H. r2 − 4st < 0 J. s2 − 4rt < 0 K. s2 + 4rt < 0
53. The 13 and 3rd 18, and respectively. 4th terms of What an arithmetic is the 50th sequence term of are the sequence? A. 248 B. 250 C. D. 253 258 E. 263
54. One of the following graphs in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane is the graph of y = sin2x + cos2x over the domain − ≤ x ≤ . Which one? y
O
x
π__ 2
π__ 2
F.
y
J.
y (0,4)
(3,3)
x
x
G.
π__ 2
π__ 2
π__ 2 (2,3)
(5,0)
−
30
O
O
π__ 2
−
−
π__ 2
y
K.
y
π__ 2
O
x
−
π__ 2
x
y
x O π__ 2
π__ 2
H.
−
π__ 2
O
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55. What is the period of the function f(x) = csc(4x) ?
A. 0π
B. 2π
C. 4π
D.
E.
56. At the school carnival, Mike will play a game in which he time. will He toss will a penny, be awarded a nickel, 3 points and a for dime each at coin the same that lands with heads faceup. Let the random variable x represent toss of the the coins. total What number is the of expected points awarded value of x on ?
any
F. 1
G.
H.
J. 6
K. 9
57. For what positive real value of k, if any, is the
determinant of the matrix
58. Given a positive integer n such that in = 1, which of the
following statements about n must be true? (Note: i2 = −1) F. G. When When n n is is divided divided by by 4, 4, the the remainder remainder is is 0. 1. H. When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 2.
π__ 4
J. K. When Cannot n be is divided determined by 4, from the the remainder given information
is 3.
π__ 2
59. For − ≤θ≤ , ⎪sin,θ⎪ ≥ 1 is true for all and only
the values of θ in which of the following sets?
A. 5− , 6 B. 5 6
3__
C. 5θ⎪− <θ< 6 2 9__ 2
D. 5θ⎪− ≤θ≤ 6
E. The empty set
60. Ray PK 4 k
π__ 2
π__ 2
π__ 2
π__ 2 π__ 2
π__ 2
π__ 2
ACT-1874FPRE
π__ 2
π__ 2
→
bisects ∠LPM, the measure of ∠LPM is 11x°, 3 3 k
4
equal to k ?
and measure the measure of ∠KPM of ?
∠LPK is (4x + 18)°. What is the
(Note: The determinant of matrix
3 b d
4
equals ad − bc.)
F. 12° A. 03 B. 04
a c
G. 28 2__ 7
°
C. 12 D. √••12
H. 42° J. 61 1__ 5
°
E. There is no such value of k.
K. 66°
END OF TEST 2
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
3131
3 3
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
READING TEST 35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test. Each passage is accompanied by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.
Passage I
is as though we slip into a worm-hole in the fabric of time and space, travel into the past and then back again LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is adapted from the essay “Rough Water” by David McGlynn (©2008 by David
to ming, the present I remembered in the same a day instant. in late That September morning, the swim- year McGlynn).
before, the last day my swim team had use of an out-
One of my best races could hardly be called a race at for all. the I USA was a Junior senior Nationals. in high school, The previous gunning to summer qualify I
ACT-1874FPRE
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. door under pool. an open All summer sky. After long this my day teammates we would and spend I swam the rest of the season in a dank and moldy indoor pool.
had missed the cut by less than a second in the mile, and meet, just I had the come day within before, three-tenths at my high of school a second regional in the 500-yard freestyle. The qualification time was 4:39.69; I my swam mother a 4:39.95. to the far The side next of Houston day, Sunday, where I a drove time with trial was being held—an informal, unadvertised event thrown swum were together those at the the swimmers last minute. requested The only to swim. races
Most were short, flapping sprints in which swimmers second. attempted I didn’t to shave have off the courage a few one-hundredths to face the mile, of and a
since I’d struck out in the 500 the day before, I decided to pool. swim It was the a 1,000-yard race I’d swum freestyle. fast enough Forty lengths to believe of that the
given the right confluence of circumstances—cold water, make the an cut. aggressive I had fifteen heat, seconds an energetic to drop meet—I to qualify.
could
only By the the only time one in I stood the race, up on I was the practically blocks, I the was only not
one in the natatorium. The horn sounded and I dove in. I the was day angry before and and disheartened I had little belief at having that missed I could the go any cut
faster today.
The triangular backstroke flags were strung across the lanes and the adjacent diving well. My teammates liked the diving to run well, down and the try long to grab cement hold deck, of the jump line. out Many over
of them could jump far enough to make it. I could not, though Since I I would tried every not have day. I another tried that shot day, until and missed. May, I decided to try again. I squared up and ran, my feet wet against edge, one the of pavement, my teammates and just called as my out foot “Jump!” hit the water’s I bent my knees and pushed off hard and got my hand around Autumn the flag line. was coming I pulled and the whole I wondered thing into if there the water. was a metaphor in what I had just done; a fortune folded inside was down a cookie: to my my last greatest opportunity.
effort would come when I
opportunity, Now it was thinking March about and that I was day down and hearing to my last the word “Jump!” as my eyes followed the finger of the boy right pointing then, me in onward. the water—was What I understood—not how little this swim later, added but
up to in the world. I had spent more than a year training for would this be one no swim, different and than when before it was it finished began. the If no world one
About six hundred yards in, my coach started to pace. I stayed steady on, not in a hurry, not about to get my time. hopes Then up. a boy In my from mind, a rival I had high already school, missed whom the I hardly knew, unfolded his legs and climbed down from the the water bleachers and and pointed started his to finger cheer. toward He squatted the end low of the to
pool, as if to say, That’s where you’re going, now hurry up. I thought, If he’s cheering, maybe I’m close.
else cared, then the swim was mine alone. It mattered because wanted now. it was Swimming, the task before I had long me now, understood, the thing is a I
constant choice between the now and the later: exhaus- tion nights now spent for in the the sake pool of in fitness pursuit later, of an all end those that seemed Friday
always one step farther on. I was out of laters, this was the set aside end, and for I climbing made my out choice. of the I pool cashed and in unfolding the energy my I
towel and tying my shoes. I’ve never sprinted harder in
Sometimes a moment comes along when the world slows us at the down, same and frenetic though speed, everything we’re afforded else moves the around oppor- tunity to reflect in real-time rather than in retrospect. It
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by my instinct, life, not by before the spasm and not of since. my tendons I hit the and wall. the ache I knew in 85
my bones, before I ever turned toward the clock or heard my coach scream, that I had made it.
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3 3
1. The narrator of the passage can best be described as a
swimmer who primarily: A. recalls the swim of his life and the factors that
motivated him during that swim. B. remembers pate in a time the trial events at the that Junior inspired Nationals.
him to partici-
C. contrasts the joy of winning competitions early in D. the chronicles season with his swimming his later struggles career, to from succeed.
childhood through high school.
2. Which of the following events mentioned in the pas-
sage happened first chronologically? F. The narrator stood on the blocks at the Sunday
time trial his senior year. G. The September.
narrator leapt out over the diving well in late
H. The narrator swam the 500-yard freestyle in the J. high The school narrator regional heard meet a boy as a from senior.
a rival school cheering.
3. The narrator describes the natatorium as being nearly
empty of spectators the day of his race in order to: A. illustrate that the perfect racing conditions the nar-
rator had hoped for weren’t likely to occur. B. demonstrate tations, the meet that, was contrary energetic.
to the narrator’s expec-
C. explain why the narrator’s coach paced at the D. sound identify of the why horn.
the narrator felt a rush of energy before the race.
4. The narrator indicates that when he swam the 1,000- yard freestyle in the time trials, the world, for a moment, seemed to: F. speed up, blurring past and present events. G. H. rush move past, in slow forcing motion, him to as reflect did everything in retrospect.
around him. J. slow down, allowing him to reflect in real time.
5. The passage indicates that during the narrator’s swim at the time trial, he understood for the first time that: A. his goals would always be one step farther on. B. C. he the had swim trained was for an event this swim that for was over important a year.
to him alone. D. swimming later.
is a choice between the now and the
6. Based on the passage, the “end” the narrator mentions
in line 80 most likely refers to his: F. final pursuit of fitness. G. last chance to qualify for Junior Nationals. H. J. memory ultimate of realization his final Friday that he night had defeated practice.
the other competitors in the race.
7. The narrator of the passage characterizes the time trial
in Houston as: A. one long sprint in which swimmers attempted to B. improve a meet advertised their times.
as a way to qualify for the Junior Nationals. C. a freestyle regional and meet 1,000-yard that featured freestyle.
only the 500-yard
D. an informal swimming event put together at the
last minute.
8. The up” (lines statement 35–36) “That’s can where most directly you’re going, be attributed now hurry to the: F. cheering boy, as he verbally criticizes the narra-
tor’s efforts. G. cheering narrator.
boy, as he shouts encouragement to the
H. narrator, as he speculates about what the cheering J. boy narrator, meant as when he angrily the boy contemplates pointed at the his pool.
response to the cheering boy.
9. For the narrator, compared to practicing in the outdoor
pool, practicing in the indoor pool is: A. more productive. B. C. more less appealing.
liberating.
D. less competitive.
10. When the narrator heard “Jump!” in his mind while
swimming (line 67), he was most likely remembering: F. his teammate’s command the day the narrator G. his caught own the shout flag line.
as he leapt off the outdoor pool’s deck that fall. H. J. the the cheers abrupt of start the of boy his from race that the rival Sunday.
school.
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Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: Passage A is adapted from the book Apple: A Global History by Erika Janik (©2011 by Erika Janik). Passage B is adapted from the article “The Fatherland of Apples” by Gary Nabhan (©2008 by The Orion Society).
Passage A by Erika Janik
In early September of 1929, Nikolai Vavilov, famed the central Russian Asian plant crossroads explorer of and Alma-Ata, botanist, Kazakhstan. arrived in
Climbing up the Zailijskei Alatau slopes of the Tian Shan Vavilov mountains found thickets separating of wild Kazakhstan apples stretching from China, in every direction, an extensive forest of fruit coloured russet else in red, the world creamy do yellow, apples and grow vibrant thickly pink. as a Nowhere forest or with such incredible diversity. Amazed by what he saw, stumbled Vavilov wrote: upon the ‘I could centre see of with origin my for own the eyes apple.’
that I had
Vavilov With suggested extraordinary that the prescience wild apples and he few had facts, seen growing in the Tian Shan were in fact the ancestors of the domestication modern apple. to the He mountains tracked near the whole Alma-Ata, process where of
the wild apples looked awfully similar to the apples found theory would at the remain local grocery. mostly unknown Unfortunately, for decades.
Vavilov’s
a matter Exactly of contention where the apple and discussion came from among had long people been
who study plant origins. Vavilov, imprisoned by Joseph Stalin lenged in Stalin’s 1940 for beliefs, work died in plant in a Leningrad genetics that prison chal- in 1943. Only after the fall of communism in Russia did Vavilov’s become widely theory, recognized.
made more than half a century earlier,
the apples As Vavilov known predicted, today are it’s direct now descendents believed that of all the of
wild apples that evolved in Kazakhstan. Apples do not comprise least 157 all other of Kazakhstan’s plant species plant found bounty, in Kazakhstan however. are At
either direct precursors or close wild relatives of vated domesticated temperate crops, fruits. including The 90 name per of cent Kazakhstan’s of all culti-
largest city, Alma-Ata, or Almaty as it is known today, even some, translates ‘where the as apples ‘Father are’. of Apples’ So this or, news according about the to
apple’s origins was probably no surprise to residents, particularly to grow up in through towns the where cracks apple in seedlings the pavements. are known The apple has been evolving in Central Asia for upwards of 4.5 million years.
Passage B by Gary Nabhan
Nikolai Vavilov is widely regarded as the world’s greatest plant explorer, for he made over 250,000 seed, fruit, conservationist and tuber collections Tatiana Salova on five credits continents. him with Kazakh first recognizing that Kazakhstan was the center of origin
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and diversity for apples. “It is not surprising,” she con- cedes, “that when Vavilov first came to Kazakhstan to look world at do plants apples he grow was so as amazed. a forest. Nowhere That is one else reason in the
why he stated that this is probably where the apple was 55
born, this was its birthing grounds.”
Discerning where a crop originated and where the greatest may seem portion esoteric of its to genetic the uninitiated. diversity remains But knowing extant
where exactly our food comes from—geographically,
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culturally, to the rather and small genetically—is portion of our of paramount own species importance that regu- larly concerns itself with the issue of food security. The variety and, secondarily, of foods that in our we seed keep banks in our is fields, critically orchards, impor- 65
tant in protecting our food supply from plagues, crop
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Vavilov diseases, himself catastrophic was personally weather, and motivated political to become upheavals. an agricultural scientist by witnessing several famines
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during bining the a more czarist diverse era of seed Russia. portfolio He hoped with that knowledge by com-
from both traditional farmers and collaborating scien-
15
tists, hunger the might number be reduced.
of Russian families suffering from
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and the In a orchards very real of sense, traditional the forests farmers of in wild such foragers centers
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of crop diversity are the wellsprings of diversity that plant to every breeders, time our pathologists, society whittles and entomologists the resilience in return our fields and orchards down to its breaking point.
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And whittle away we have done. Here in North
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America, according to apple historian Dan Bussey, some tured over 16,000 the apple last four varieties centuries. have By been 1904, named however, and nur- the identities and sources of only 7,098 of those varieties 85
could Since then, be discerned some 6,121 by apple USDA varieties—86.2 scientist W. H. percent Ragan. of
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Ragan’s 1904 inventory—have been lost from nursery catalogs, table.
farmers’ markets, and from the American
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11. The author’s use of the words and phrases “thickets,” “stretching (lines 6–7) in in Passage every direction,” A most nearly and “extensive serves to empha- forest”
size which of the following points? A. The Tian Shan mountains are a challenge to
navigate.
45
B. The cult for apple a botanist varieties to of catalog.
Kazakhstan would be diffi-
C. The diversity of plant species in Kazakhstan is D. crucially The magnitude important.
of wild apples in Kazakhstan is stunning.
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12. The author of Passage A most likely states that the wild apples growing in the Tian Shan looked like apples point that:
found at the local grocery store to support the
F. many harvested of the in the apples Tian stocked Shan.
in grocery stores are
G. in the Tian Shan, Vavilov had likely found the wild H. ancestors the wild of apples the domesticated growing in apple.
the Tian Shan are among the most popular varieties with consumers. J. in varieties the Tian to introduce Shan, Vavilov to food had producers.
found new apple
13. Passage plant species A makes that are which found of the in Kazakhstan?
following claims about
A. Approximately fruits originated 157 in Kazakhstan.
species of cultivated temperate
B. Ninety percent of all domesticated crops are either
direct species precursors found in Kazakhstan.
or close wild relatives of plant
C. Of the plant species found in Kazakhstan, ninety D. percent Aside from are species apples, of at least apples.
157 plant species found in Kazakhstan are either direct precursors or close wild relatives of domesticated crops.
14. Passage B most strongly suggests that Vavilov was
motivated because he:
to become an agricultural scientist primarily
G. F. aimed wanted to to work have with one of a famous his findings botanist.
published.
H. wished to remedy a personal financial crisis. J. hoped to help feed others.
15. The author of Passage B uses the phrase “whittle
away” have been:
(line 80) to refer to the way that apple varieties
A. gradually markets, and lost the from American nursery table.
catalogs, farmers’
B. modified by plant breeders, entomologists, and C. weeded pathologists out by to meet scientists specialized until only needs.
the few thou- sand most resilient varieties remained. D. pared ery catalogs down in wanted 1904 to to feature.
the few varieties that nurs-
16. As tured it is most used nearly in lines means:
82–83, the phrase named and nur-
F. G. nominated identified and and cultivated.
encouraged.
H. pointed to and groomed. J. cited and fed.
17. In Passage B, it can most reasonably be inferred from the third paragraph (lines 74–79) that “centers of crop diversity” become crucially important when: A. plant breeders would like to learn more about the B. plant problems species with of a central cultivated Asia.
crop require experts to research a new variety of the crop. C. consumers duce departments.
would like more variety in grocery pro-
D. disputes among plant breeders, pathologists, and
entomologists lead to a reduction in crop variety.
18. Which of the following statements best describes the
difference in the tone of the two passages? F. Passage A is defensive, whereas Passage B is G. dispassionate.
PassageA is solemn, whereas PassageB is optimistic. H. Passage cautionary.
A is celebratory, whereas Passage B is
J. Passage A is accusatory, whereas Passage B is
sentimental.
19. Compared to the author of Passage A, the author of
Passage B provides more information about the: A. reduction in the number of apple varieties in North
America over the past four centuries. B. methods that the apples Vavilov growing used to in prove the Tian to other Shan scientists are the ancestors of the modern apple. C. number Kazakhstan of today.
apple varieties that are thriving in
D. techniques used by researchers to determine the
regions plants.
with the greatest genetic diversity in
20. Passage my own A eyes quotes that Vavilov I had stumbled as saying upon “‘I could the centre see with of origin for the apple’” (lines 11–12). In Passage B this quote is directly: F. invoked by the passage author as he imagines what G. Kazakhstan used to support looked an argument like centuries by USDA ago.
scientists. H. paraphrased by Salova. J. refuted by Bussey.
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Passage III
The other players, no longer languidly blowing through their charts, immediately surge up behind him, all HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article “The Quiet Sideman” by Colin Fleming (©2008 by The American
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40
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fighting-fit. gans resume.
Once Berry finishes his solo, the shenani-
Scholar).
Near the end of his eight years as a recording- session landed a musician, short-lived tenor spot saxophonist with Count Leon Basie’s “Chu” orchestra. Berry
Standing in for one of the Basie band’s two tenor giants, the 1924 Berry Gershwin took a lead song solo that on Basie “Oh, Lady had played Be Good,” for years. In the 28 seconds that the solo lasted on February musical personification 4, 1939, we are of treated mind to and no body less working than the
together in divine tandem. When you hear the recording for never the heard first of time, Chu you’re Berry before.
likely to wonder why you’ve
lot of Why hard-core you’ve jazz never buffs heard don’t of know him is much pretty about simple: him. a
Berry was a solid session player who turns up on recordings Henderson, and with Billie Basie, Holiday. Bessie But he Smith, did not cut Fletcher many sessions himself as a leader, and when he soloed, he
ately After became making a presence his way and to New soon York, was in Berry demand. immedi- The great jazz orchestras of the swing era were fronted by musical eminent—who directors/arrangers—Duke drew the acclaim. The Ellington sidemen was were pre-
musical traveling salesmen who sold someone else’s wares Fletcher in Henderson the best style that they Berry could began manage. to ditch It was some with of the sideman’s subservient trappings. For starters, Henderson orchestras of wrote the day, in keys and his that somber, were rare indigo-inflected for the jazz
voicings were ideal for a player of Berry’s introspective being approach swallowed to his by instrument: his sax. “Blues Berry in sounds C Sharp as Minor,” if he’s
for instance, is odd, haunting, and ultimately relaxing. A tener Berry feel solo as though in it is slightly he’s been off playing mike, making for some the time lis-
before we finally hear him. The effect is unnerving, as if we weren’t paying close attention.
worked the swing within genre—fast-moving the recording constraints 78s with solos of the often era last- and
ing for a mere 32 beats.
In June 1940, Cab Calloway granted Berry a show- case in Berry’s piece, career “A Ghost to feature of a Chance,” him from the start sole to recording finish. It
The people who loved Berry were, not surpris- ingly, other tenor players, a situation leading to the dreaded nearly praise “musician’s enough to musician” describe Chu tag. Berry, But who, that’s when not
given opportunity, displayed a musical dexterity that would be envied by future generations of horn men.
was his “Body and Soul,” a response to Coleman Hawkins’s to a rival, but famous as the recording, other half intended of a dialogue. not as Its a riposte rubato lines are disembodied from the music meant to accom- pany Berry’s it, which one and is spartan only instance to begin of with. indulgence This may on be a record, a cathedral of a solo in its flourishes, angles,
Berry faced the lot of other horn players: having to grind burst through; it out long the and prejudices hard until and something expectations memorable of the
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ornamentations, through music, “A reflexivity. Ghost of a Chance” If sunlight would could funnel pass it out in the broadest spectrum of colors.
listening public; and the accepted wisdom of what is and fodder isn’t for art dance in a given parties, medium. not music In this worthy case, of swing study.
was
explain Oddly his failure enough, to court Berry’s history’s geniality favor: might it wasn’t help in his nature to call attention to himself or his playing. Born West in Virginia, 1908 into the the laid-back, black middle affable class Berry in Wheeling, attended West Virginia State in Charleston, where he switched from fit in alto that sax characterized to tenor and his exhibited presence the in so willingness many dance to
21. Based on the passage, how did Berry’s personality
affect his career? bands. He was the rare artist who refused to put his
A. His ambitious, competitive personality was off- interests playing ensemble above those passages of the rather band, than even taking if that a healthy meant
putting play with to him.
other musicians, who were reluctant to
allotment of solo breaks.
B. His genial personality endeared him to other musi-
College proved a training ground for Berry the
cians, time socializing but his career than suffered practicing.
when he spent more
bandsman, as he teamed up with a number of amateur
C. His modest and easygoing personality kept him outfits. tried to He bring never out played the positive simply attributes to show in off. any Instead, given sit- he
out less of attention the spotlight as a performer.
and, consequently, he received
uation or setting. Later, when Berry is performing with
D. His shy, introspective personality was misunder- the tune Calloway playing until ensemble, Berry’s we first hear few some solo ragged, notes emerge. out-of-
stood few recording-session as snobbish arrogance, jobs.
so he was offered
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22. The author mentions Berry’s solo in “Oh, Lady Be
Good” primarily in order to: F. illustrate why most people haven’t heard of Berry. G. provide an example of Berry’s musical excellence. H. contrast work.
Berry’s later work with Berry’s early
J. establish that Berry’s solo was better than Count
Basie’s.
23. The author points out that many serious jazz enthusi-
asts know little about Berry primarily in order to: A. criticize scholarship that has provided an unbal-
anced history of jazz. B. demonstrate than most jazz that scholars.
the author is more knowledgeable
C. illustrate the secrecy Berry demanded in order to D. preserve explain why his family’s it’s likely privacy.
that readers would be unfa- miliar with Berry.
24. According to the author, Berry’s solos as a recording- session musician were often very short because he: F. wasn’t a very good saxophone player until late in G. his drew career.
more attention playing ensemble passages. H. worked within the recording constraints of the era. J. few preferred long ones.
playing many short solos to playing a
25. The author indicates that during Berry’s time as a
musician, swing music was primarily regarded as: A. an opportunity for soloists to show off their skills. C. B. musician’s a genre to be music most that appreciated lacked a by popular young audience. people.
D. music for dance parties but not music for study.
26. As it is used in line 35, the word court most nearly
means to: F. seek to attract. G. romantically pursue. H. J. dangerously pass judgment provoke.
upon.
27. In compares the seventh sidemen paragraph to traveling (lines salesmen 57–75), in order the author
to: B. A. indicate make clear that how musicians often musicians often had had side to jobs.
travel.
C. illustrate sidemen’s supportive role in a band. D. show how hard sidemen worked to get hired.
28. The author describes Henderson’s “Blues in C Sharp
Minor” as: F. innovative, indulgent, and colorful. G. H. fast-moving, artful, sublime, memorable, and unexpectedly and eerie.
upbeat. J. odd, haunting, and relaxing.
29. According to the author, what is unique about the June 1940 rendition of the song “A Ghost of a Chance”? A. It’s the only recorded piece that features Berry
from beginning to end. B. Berry tenor saxophone.
plays an alto saxophone instead of his usual
C. It was the only public performance Berry gave in D. 1940.
Berry showcases his unrivaled ability to play a solo that blends into the background.
30. The author uses the phrase “a cathedral of a solo” (line 85) most likely to create a sense that Berry’s solo was: F. an intricate, awe-inspiring masterpiece. G. H. a a somber, crumbling mournful remnant hymn.
of Berry’s once-great skill. J. a testament to Calloway’s band leadership.
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Passage IV
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article “Warp Factor” by Charles Liu (©2003 by Natural History Maga- zine, Inc.).
Astronomers sometimes describe the shape of our home a plum galaxy, stuck the in the Milky middle. Way, as The a thin-crust plum is the pizza slightly with
oblong central bulge, protruding about 3,000 light- years mostly above of older and stars; below it makes the galactic up the plane, core of comprised the Milky Way, and includes a black hole two and a half million times galactic the disk—the mass of the source Sun. of The most crust of our of the galaxy’s pizza is light. the
Thin and flat, the disk is 100,000 light-years across, about more than 1,000 80 light-years percent of thick, the galaxy’s on average, hundred and billion includes or so stars.
The plum-and-pizza picture works well enough, but like most simple metaphors, it breaks down if you push body, it. but For a loose one thing, agglomeration the galactic of disk matter isn’t streaming a rigid
around a common center of gravity. (The swirling pat- tern galaxy.) of a For hurricane another far thing, better our resembles galaxy’s disk our isn’t spinning flat; it’s warped. Picture a disk of pizza dough spun into the air kind by of a floppy, skilled chef: wobbly our gyrations, galaxy goes though through at a the rate same best measured in revolutions per hundreds of millions of years.
Why does the Milky Way have such an odd- looking thing we warp? do know: No definitive when it comes answer to has warps, emerged. our galaxy One
is hardly unique. About half of all spiral galaxies are warped models have to some shown degree. that a Theoretical number of and physical computational processes can warp a galaxy, so it’s a matter of figuring out which scenario by Jeremy applies. Bailin, An an innovative astronomy analysis graduate of student the problem at the University of Arizona in Tucson, has implicated a small satellite gravity of galaxy, the Milky currently Way.
being ripped to shreds by the
covered The in Sagittarius 1994. It Dwarf appears Spheroidal to be in a Galaxy roughly was polar dis-
orbit around the Milky Way—that is, above and below the galactic galactic center. disk—about That orbit 50,000 brings light-years the dwarf galaxy from the far too close to the huge gravitational tidal forces of the Milky the Sagittarius Way for Dwarf the dwarf now to looks remain something intact. As like a strands result,
of spaghetti spilling from the front of a pasta-making machine, dreds of millions the galaxy’s of years matter by intergalactic being drawn tides.
out over hun-
galaxies Gravitational and big collisions spiral galaxies between have small long satellite been regarded as possible culprits in the warping of a larger ing galaxy’s the Milky disk. The Way—the best known Large satellite and Small galaxies Magellanic orbit-
Clouds—are too far away, and have the wrong orbital
55
characteristics, to have warped our galactic home. The Sagittarius Dwarf seems a much more likely candidate, simply of the Milky because Way it is as only the a Magellanic third as far Clouds. from the But center in astronomy—unlike in real estate—location isn’t every- 60
thing; dwarf, to the show orbital a direct motion connection of the Sagittarius between Dwarf warp must and
be linked to the rotation of the Milky Way’s disk.
Bailin’s study is the first to find such a link. His 5
analysis of the galactic warp is based on angular 65
momentum—a ning or rotating. measure Just as of objects how much moving a system in a straight is spin-
line have momentum, objects spinning or orbiting
10
around momenta an of axis two have objects angular combine momentum; when they and collide, just as the so 70
too do their angular momenta. Imagine two figure skaters they make coming physical together contact, for a their combination individual spin. spiraling When
motions combine to produce a single, unified whirl.
15
Starting with the latest measurements of the struc- 75
ture and spin of the Milky Way, Bailin deduced the angular Way’s disk. momentum He then of compared the warped that portion measure of the with Milky the angular momentum of the Sagittarius Dwarf—and 20
80
found ment error, for the that first the time, two within angular the momenta margins are of measure- identical in both quantity and direction. Such a coupling of the angular by chance; momenta usually, of it two takes bodies place almost only when never two happens spin- 25
ning systems, like the skaters, come into contact. The 85
coupling itself, but isn’t it’s solid enough circumstantial to prove cause evidence and effect that the by
interaction of the Sagittarius Dwarf with the Milky Way disk created the warp in our galaxy.
30
31. Which of the following statements best expresses the
35
main idea of the passage? A. Bailin began studying the Sagittarius Dwarf when B. he The was gravitational a graduate tidal student forces in astronomy.
of the Milky Way are destroying the Sagittarius Dwarf.
40
C. Most evidence astronomers about how have galaxies come to have an agreement formed is, that at best, circumstantial. D. Evidence Way’s disk suggests results from that the the Milky warp Way’s in the interac- Milky
tion with a small satellite galaxy.
45
32. It can reasonably be inferred that the problem the
author mentions in line 33 refers to: F. a particular aspect of Bailin’s theory for which
there is little evidence.
50
G. a focus mathematical on the Sagittarius computation Dwarf.
that led Bailin to
H. the question of which physical processes caused J. the the warp potential in the impact Milky of Way.
wobbly gyrations on the Milky Way’s rotation.
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33. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the small satellite galaxy referred to in lines 35–36 is: A. the Small Magellanic Cloud. B. the Sagittarius Dwarf. C. D. a a known hypothetical but as galaxy yet unnamed that is galaxy.
believed to exist but has not yet been found.
34. Based on the passage, which of the following state- ments best describes Bailin’s study as it relates to the field of astronomy? F. It led astronomers to the discovery of a warp in the G. Milky It convinced Way’s more disk.
astronomers to focus their atten- tion on the center of the Milky Way. H. It held revealed by most problems astronomers.
with the basic assumptions
J. It provided evidence for an idea that scientists had
long proved.
considered a possibility but had not yet
35. According to the passage, Bailin discovered that the angular Way and momentum the angular of the momentum warped portion of the of Sagittarius the Milky
Dwarf are: A. identical in quantity but different in direction. B. identical in direction but different in quantity. C. D. identical different in in both both quantity quantity and and direction. direction.
36. According Milky Way is to comprised the passage, of:
the central bulge of the
G. F. older 80 percent stars and of the a black galaxy’s hole.
stars.
H. a galactic plane and several dwarf planets. J. a loose agglomeration of unidentified matter.
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST. 37. The author refers to the swirling pattern of a hurricane
primarily in order to: A. help explain the shortcomings of the plum-and-
pizza metaphor. B. argue spiral galaxies that the requires unpredictability a new metaphor.
of the rotation of
C. emphasize the particular aspects of the Milky Way D. that describe make how it unique.
the movement of the Milky Way cre- ates gravitational tides.
38. The passage directly compares the Milky Way’s disk as
it is affected by its warp to: F. a pasta maker churning out spaghetti. G. pizza dough being spun in the air by a chef. H. J. a two thin-crust figure skaters pizza balanced coming together on top of for a plum.
a combina- tion spin.
39. According to the passage, which of the following state- ments best describes the movement of the Sagittarius Dwarf with respect to the Milky Way? A. It appears to be in a roughly polar orbit around the B. Milky It appears Way.
to orbit the Milky Way at an angle of roughly forty-five degrees. C. It Way’s follows disk, the though movement at a slightly of the faster stars in rate.
the Milky
D. It once followed the movement of the stars in the
Milky cally along Way’s its disk, own but path.
now seems to move errati-
40. The amount passage of a system’s:
describes angular momentum as the
F. G. vertical movement deviation in a straight within line an through orbital path.
space. H. gravitational pull. J. spin or rotation.
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4 4 SCIENCE TEST 35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer document. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary. You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
Table 1 A study was conducted to examine whether female Blattella germanica (a species of cockroach) prefer to eat cat the food, 4 foods cheese, was separately ham, or peanuts. placed First, into a 200 single mg box. of each Then, of
Percent by mass
Food
carbohydrates lipids proteins water adult female B. germanica were added to the box. Figure 1 shows changed how over the time mass, after in the mg, addition of each of the food B. in germanica. the box
Table 1 shows the percent by mass of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, 4 foods tested and in water, the study.
respectively, present in each of the
Cat food 1.2 6.0 16.9 66.2 Cheese 0.5 27.7 20.8 48.4 Ham 0.0 18.2 23.6 57.1 Peanuts 15.8 49.6 26.2 6.4
Table adapted from U.S. Department of Agriculture, USDA National Nutrient Database for Standard Reference, Release 24. 2011.
1. According to Figure 1, the mass of cheese remaining at
4 hr was closest to which of the following values? A. 140 mg B. C. 176 185 mg mg D. 190 mg
2. Suppose a company wants to use food as bait in a trap designed to capture female B. germanica. Based on
Figure 1
Figure place in 1, the which trap to of maximize the 4 foods the should chance the of capturing company
female B. germanica ?
Figure adapted from Prachumporn Lauprasert et al., “Food Prefer- ence and Feeding Behavior of the German Cockroach, Blattella germanica (Linnaeus).” ©2006 by the Faculty of Science, Chulalongkorn University.
Key cat cheese
food
ham peanuts
) g m ( g n i n i a m e r d o o f f o s s a m
200 180 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 0
0 4 16 24 28 time (hr)
F. Cat food G. Cheese H. J. Ham
Peanuts
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) g m ( g n i n i a m e r d o o f f o s s a m
40
4 4
3. Consider the 4 foods in order of the percent by mass of proteins, the percent from by lowest mass of to proteins highest. increased, From food the to food, mass as of food remaining at 28 hr: A. increased only. B. decreased only. C. D. increased decreased and and then then decreased. increased.
4. Consider between 0 the hr statement and 4 hr, between “The B. 4 germanica hr and 16 ate hr, the between food
16 hr and 24 hr, and between 24 hr and 28 hr.” This statement how many is of consistent the 4 foods?
with the data in Figure 1 for
F. G. 1 2 H. 3 J. 4
5. A student predicted that the B. germanica would eat
less data cat in Figure food than 1 support ham by this the prediction?
end of the study. Do the
A. Yes; about at 55mg 28 hr, the greater mass of than cat food the mass remaining of ham was
remaining. B. Yes; about at 95mg 28 hr, the greater mass of than cat food the mass remaining of ham was
remaining. C. No; about at 55 28 mg hr, less the than mass the of mass cat food of ham remaining remaining.
was
D. No; at 28 hr, the mass of cat food remaining was
about 95 mg less than the mass of ham remaining.
6. Based on Table 1, when 200 mg of each of the 4 foods
was 100 mg placed of the in mass the box, of which water food(s)?
accounted for more than
F. G. Peanuts Cat food only
and ham only H. Cheese and peanuts only J. Cat food, cheese, and ham only
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Passage II
Student 2
A teacher provided the table below to the students in a science class. The table gives 5 properties for each of Sam- ples sample A−H. is a The completely students solid were cube told composed to assume of that a single each
42
If 2 samples have the same values for any 3 or more of the 5 properties, they are composed of the same substance. If 5 properties, 2 samples they have are the composed same values of different for fewer substances.
than 3 of the
hypothetical pure substance.
Student 3
If 2 samples have the same mass, volume, and density,
Mass
Volume
Density (g)
(cm3)
(g/cm3)
Melting point (°C)
Boiling
Sample
point (°C)
A 8.0 4.0 2.0 126 747 B 8.0 4.0 2.0 342 959
they have different are composed values of for the any same of these substance. 3 properties, If 2 samples they are composed of different substances. Neither melting point nor substances.
boiling point, by itself, can distinguish between
C 6.0 3.0 2.0 237 885 D E 6.0 8.0 3.0 2.0 2.0 4.0 237 126 885 747 F 8.0 2.0 4.0 126 747 G H 4.0 4.0 1.0 1.0 4.0 4.0 126 342 747 959
Note: determined Assume at that 20°C mass, and that volume, all 5 and properties density were were
Student 4
If 2 samples have the same density, melting point, and 2 boiling samples point, have they different are composed values for of any the same of these substance. 3 proper- If
ties, they are composed of different substances. Neither mass substances.
nor volume, by itself, can distinguish between
determined at 1 atmosphere (atm) of pressure.
The teacher asked each of 4 students to explain how these posed data of the could same be substance.
used to predict which samples are com-
7. Based on Student 1’s explanation, the same substance composes both of the samples in which of the follow- Student 1
ing pairs? If 2 samples have the same values for all 5 properties,
A. Samples A and B they have are different composed values of for the any same of the substance. 5 properties, If 2 samples they are
B. C. Samples Samples B C and and C D composed of different substances.
D. Samples D and E
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8. Based on Student 3’s explanation, the same substance
composes ing pairs?
both of the samples in which of the follow-
F. G. Samples Samples A B and and E C
H. Samples F and G J. Samples G and H
9. Suppose to 250°C that at the 1 atm temperature of pressure. of Sample At 250°C, A is increased would Sample A be a solid or a liquid? A. Solid, because the melting point of Sample A is
126°C. B. 747°C.
Solid, because the melting point of Sample A is
C. Liquid, because the melting point of Sample A is D. 126°C.
Liquid, because the melting point of Sample A is 747°C.
10. Consider the claim that 2 samples having the same density stance, regardless will always of the be composed values of the of other the same 4 proper- sub-
ties. Which of the students, if any, would be likely to agree with this claim? F. Students 1 and 2 only H. G. All Students of the 2, students
3, and 4 only
J. None of the students
11. Which of Students 2, 3, and 4 would be likely to agree
that substance?
Sample A and Sample B are composed of the same
A. B. Students Students 2 2 and and 3 4 only only C. Students 3 and 4 only D. Students 2, 3, and 4
12. Consider the statement “Two samples that have the same composed mass, of volume, the same density, substance, and even boiling if the point two sam- are
ples have different melting points.” Which of Stu- dents this statement?
2 and 4, if either, would be likely to agree with
F. G. Student Student 2 4 only only H. Both Student 2 and Student 4 J. Neither Student 2 nor Student 4
13. Suppose that the temperature of Sample D is increased to sity 890°C be lower at 1 than atm of or pressure. higher than Will it the was sample’s at 20°C den- and 1 atm ? A. Lower; Sample D will be a gas, and gases gener-
ally have lower densities than do solids. B. Lower; erally have Sample lower D densities will be a than liquid, do and solids.
liquids gen-
C. Higher; Sample D will be a gas, and gases gener- D. ally Higher; have Sample higher densities D will be than a do liquid, solids.
and liquids generally have higher densities than do solids.
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Passage III
Experiment 1
When a solid metal (M) such as iron (Fe), nickel (Ni), or zinc (Zn) is placed in an aqueous hydrochloric acid
44
In each trial, a selected mass of Fe, Ni, or Zn was tested at 30°C (see Figure 1). (HCl) solution, a reaction that produces H
2
gas occurs:
M + 2HCl → MCl
2
+ H
2
Figure 1
Experiment 2
In each trial, 0.30 g of Fe, Ni, or Zn was tested at a selected temperature (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Key
Fe Ni Zn
Two experiments were conducted to study the produc- tion of H
2
) L m (
190
in this reaction. The apparatus shown in the dia- gram below was used to collect the H
2
170
each trial.
gas produced in
d e t c e l l o c s
150
outlet tube
a g f o e
130
110
water in
graduated inverted
stopper flask
cylinder
m u l o v
90
HCl
70 solution
0.20 0.25 0.30 0.35 0.40 mass (g) metal
diagram
As flask H
2 through was produced the outlet in tube the stoppered and displaced flask, the it exited water that the
had been trapped in the inverted graduated cylinder. (This displacement the water.) The occurred volume because of water the displaced H
2
did not equaled dissolve the in
volume of gas (H
2
temperature (°C)
Key and water vapor) collected.
Fe
In each trial of the experiments, Steps 1−3 were performed:
1. The apparatus was assembled, and 25 mL of a 4 moles/L
HCl solution was poured into the empty flask.
2. A selected mass of Fe, Ni, or Zn was added to the flask, and the stopper was quickly reinserted into the flask.
3. When H
2
) L m ( d e t c e l l o c s a g f o e m u l o
Ni Zn 150
140
130
120
110
production ceased, the volume of water that was displaced from the graduated cylinder was recorded.
v
100
10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
The apparatus and its contents were kept at a selected tem- perature throughout Steps 2 and 3. The atmospheric pres- sure was 758 mm Hg throughout all 3 steps.
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14. Consider the volume of gas collected in the trial in Experiment volume of gas 2 for was Ni collected at 30°C. The in the same trial approximate in Experi- ment 1 for what mass of Ni ? F. 0.20 g G. 0.25 g H. J. 0.30 0.35 g g
15. How and how many many temperatures temperatures were were tested tested in Experiment in Experi- 1,
ment 2 ?
Experiment 1 Experiment 2 A. B. 1 1 1 5 C. 5 1 D. 5 5
16. Which of the following statements describes a differ-
ence between Experiments 1 and 2 ? In Experiment 1: F. only Fe was tested, but in Experiment 2, Fe, Ni, G. and Fe, Ni, Zn were and Zn tested.
were tested, but in Experiment 2, only Fe was tested. H. the in Experiment same mass value 2, multiple of each mass metal values was tested, of each but
metal were tested. J. but multiple in Experiment mass values 2, the of same each mass metal value were of tested, each metal was tested.
17. Which of the following variables remained constant
throughout both experiments? A. Atmospheric pressure B. Mass of metal C. D. Temperature
Volume of gas collected
18. If a temperature of 5°C had been tested in Experi- ment likely 2, have would been the volume greater of than gas 107 collected mL or for less Zn more than 107 mL ? F. Greater than 107 mL, because for a given metal, the volume of collected gas increased as the tem- G. perature Greater than decreased.
107 mL, because for a given metal, the volume of collected gas increased as the tem- H. perature Less than increased.
107 mL, because for a given metal, the volume of collected gas decreased as the tempera- J. ture Less decreased.
than 107 mL, because for a given metal, the volume of collected gas decreased as the tempera- ture increased.
19. Consider the balanced chemical equation in the pas- sage. Based on this equation, if 10 moles of HCl are consumed, how many moles of H
2
are produced? A. 05 B. C. 10 15 D. 20
20. Suppose Zn is repeated, that the except trial in that Experiment the inverted 1 with graduated 0.25 g of
cylinder is replaced by inverted test tubes, each com- how pletely many filled test with tubes 60 will mL of be water. needed Based to collect on Figure all the 1,
gas? F. 1 G. 2 H. J. 3 4
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Passage IV
Figure 3 shows how the voltages across the components—
Figure 1 is a diagram of an RLC circuit. The circuit
V
R
has a power supply and 3 components: a resistor (R), an inductor (L), and a capacitor (C).
Figure 1
Electric current can flow through the circuit either clock- wise (positive current) or counterclockwise (negative cur- rent). I (in amperes, Figure 2 shows A), and how the the power electric supply current voltage, in the circuit,
V
S
46
same , V
20 L
, and msec V
time C
, respectively—each interval.
changed during the
Key
power supply
V V V
R L C 300
200 R L C
) V ( e g a t l o v
100
0
−100
−200 (in volts, V), both changed during a 20-millisecond (msec) time interval.
−300
0 2 4 6 8 101214161820 time (msec) Key
I
Figure 3
V
S 0.30
300
0.20
200
21. According to Figure 2, the maximum positive value of 0.10
0
−0.10
100
0
V
S
was approximately: A. 125 V. B. 200 V.
−100
C. D. 250 275 V. V. −0.20
−0.30
0 2 4 6 8 101214161820 time (msec) ) A ( t n e r r u c
−200
−300
) V ( e g a t l o v
22. A one period full was:
cycle. is the Based time required on Figure for 3, a the wave period to complete
for V
L
F. 05 msec. G. 10 msec.
Figure 2
H. J. 20 40 msec. msec.
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23. According to Figures 2 and 3, which voltage varied the
least during the 20 msec interval? A. V
S B. V
R C. V
L D. V
C
24. Polarity tive (a voltage refers to of whether 0 V has a voltage no polarity is positive and or can nega- be ignored). Based on Figures 2 and 3, which 2 voltages were always opposite in polarity? F. V
R
26. The table below lists the electric charge (in micro-
coulombs, times during μC) the stored 20 msec on interval.
the capacitor at 3 different
Time (msec) Charge (μC)
07 0.51 10 13 0.87 0.51
Based on Figures 2 and 3, from time = 7 msec through time = 13 msec, did the charge on the capacitor more
and V
L G. V
R
and V
S H. V
L
and V
C J. V
L
and V
S
likely change in sync with I or with V
C
? F. I; over that time interval, both the charge and I G. decreased I; over that and time then interval, increased.
both the charge and I increased and then decreased.
25. Based the current on Figure in the 2, circuit at which flowing of the counterclockwise?
following times was
A. B. 00 05 msec msec
H. decreased V
C
; over that and time then interval, increased.
both the charge and V
C
J. V
increased C
; over that and time then interval, decreased.
both the charge and V
C
C. 10 msec D. 15 msec
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Passage V
The 5 dishes were incubated at 37°C for 2 days. At the
Strains of bacteria carrying a genetic mutation that
end ing on of the the incubation nutrient agar period, in each the number dish was of determined colonies grow- (see prevents are dine growth. called from Exposing them His−. their from These environment His− synthesizing strains strains of in bacteria of the order bacteria amino must to 48 acid histidine
Table 2). sustain absorb histi- their to mutagens (substances mutations that that restore induce the DNA ability mutations) of some bacteria can cause to syn- new
revertant. thesize synthesize histidine. histidine Any becomes bacterium His+ that and regains is known the as ability a His+ to
teria The can number indicate of the His+ potential revertants of a in substance a population to be of muta- bac-
genic in Salmonella suspected humans. to typhimurium.
be a mutagen, Scientists on a tested His− strain 4 substances, each of the bacteria
Study lacking S. typhimurium A sterile histidine petri were was dish prepared. added (Dish to 1) Then, Dish containing 1 1 and × 108 a evenly nutrient cells of spread His− agar
over the surface of the nutrient agar. These procedures were except repeated that the for bacteria 4 more were nutrient mixed agar with dishes 1 (Dishes of the 4 2−5), sus- pected mutagens before being spread over the surface of the substance nutrient that agar. was Table mixed 1 lists, with for the each bacteria of Dishes before 2−5, they the
were added to the dish.
27. Based on the results of the study, which of the sus-
pected His+ revertants mutagens in a resulted dish?
in the greatest number of
A. B. Substance Substance L M C. Substance N D. Substance P
28. Which dish in the study was intended to serve the pur- cells pose became of testing His+ whether revertants some without of the the S. typhimurium addition of a mutagen? F. Dish 1 G. Dish 2 H. J. Dish Dish 3 4
Table 2
Dish Number of colonies
1 002 2 014 3 025 4 5 107 006
Table 1
Dish Substance
2 L 3 M 4 N 5 P
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31. 29. Based on the results of the study, what is the order of
Before bacteria were added to it, the dish that was least the suspected potential mutagens, to be mutagenic from the to substance the substance with with the
intended lacked which to serve of the as substances the control listed dish below?
in the study
the most potential to be mutagenic? A. P, M, N, L
II. I. Histidine
Nutrient agar B. P, L, M, N
III. Suspected mutagen C. D. N, N, L, M, P, L, M P
A. II only B. III only C. D. I I and and II III only
only
32. Which of bacteria of the that following regained statements the ability to about synthesize the numbers histi- dine is consistent with the results of the study for Dishes His+ revertants 2 and 3 after ? The exposure number to:
of bacteria that became
30. In stance the P study, at a concentration the scientists of tested 5 × 10−9 the g/mL. effect After of Sub- the
F. Substance teria that became M was about His+ revertants 2 times the after number exposure of bac- to study, the scientists repeated their test of the effect of
Substance L. Substance centrations P, and but their at 3 corresponding other concentrations. results The are 3 shown con-
G. Substance teria that became L was about His+ revertants 2 times the after number exposure of bac- to in the table below.
Substance M.
Concentration Substance P
of
Number colonies
of 050 100 010 × × × 10−9 10−9 10−9 H. Substance teria that became M was about His+ revertants 4 times the after number exposure of bac- to Substance L. J. Substance teria that became L was about His+ revertants 4 times the after number exposure of bac- to Substance M.
33. The particular strain of S. typhimurium chosen for the What is the relationship, if any, between the concentra-
study lacks normal DNA repair mechanisms. Which of tion of Substance P and its potential to cause mutations? F. As the concentration of Substance P increases, its
the this following particular strain statements was chosen? gives the The most scientists:
likely reason
G. potential As the concentration to cause mutations of Substance increases P increases, only.
its
A. did any not DNA.
want the bacteria in the study to synthesize
potential to cause mutations decreases only.
B. did not want the bacteria in the study to synthesize H. As potential the concentration to cause mutations of Substance first P decreases increases, and its
C. any wanted proteins.
the bacteria in the study to be able to then increases.
repair the mutations caused by the substances. J. There of Substance is no relationship P and its potential between to the cause concentration mutations.
D. wanted repair the the mutations bacteria caused in the by study the to substances.
be unable to g/mL g/mL g/mL
014 054 114
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Passage VI
The results of the 4 trials are shown in Figure 1.
Three studies examined how the volume of runoff from melting ice is affected by wind speed and by the pres- ence of sand beneath the ice.
In a lab kept at 18°C, runoff was collected from a 10° plastic and box had containing horizontal melting openings ice. in The its box lower was end. tilted After at
flowing through the openings, the runoff fell into a trough (see diagram) and was conveyed to a measuring device.
Figure 1
Study 2
The second trial of Study 1 was repeated. Then the Step second 1 was trial omitted. of Study (No 1 sand was layer again was repeated, placed except in the box.) that
The results of the 2 trials are shown in Figure 2.
Study 1
In each of the first 3 of 4 trials, the following steps were carried out:
1. A 30 cm deep layer of a particular clean, dry sand was
placed in the box.
2. A 30 cm deep layer of chipped ice (density 0.4 g/cm3)
was placed in the box on top of the layer of sand.
3. A fan was turned on to blow air at a constant speed onto
the trough end of the box.
4. For the next 600 min, the volume of runoff collected
over each 20 min period was measured.
The wind speed was 2.5 m/sec, 1.0 m/sec, and 0.5 m/sec in
Figure 2 the first, second, and third trials, respectively.
Figures adapted from Masahiko Hasebe and Takanori Kumekawa,
In the fourth trial, all steps except Step 3 were carried out. (The fan was not turned on.)
50
“The Effect of Wind Speed on the Snowmelt Runoff Process: Labo- ratory Experiment.” ©1994 by International Association of Hydro- logical Sciences Publishing.
Key wind speed (m/sec)
v
2.5 1.0 0.5 0 2,000
f f o n u r
) L m (
1,750 1,500
120 cm
60 cm
f o e
n i m 0
1,250 1,000
60 cm
m u l
2 r e p
750 o
500 250 0
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 wind direction
10°
time (min)
trough
diagram of box
1,500 1,250 1,000 750 500 250 0
time (min)
Key
with sand layer without sand layer
f f o n u r f o e m u l o v
) L m ( n i m 0 2 r e p
0 100 200 300 400 500 600
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34. The researchers conducting the studies chose to use a
38. The volume of runoff measured at 200 min in Study 1 box ensure made that of all a of type the of water plastic from rather the melting than of ice wood would to
for the following the 4 wind graphs?
speeds is best represented by which of
flow from the box and into the trough. The researchers most tic, unlike likely wood, made is:
that choice because that type of plas-
F. porous absorbing and water.
permeable, and therefore incapable of
G. nonporous and impermeable, and therefore inca- H. pable porous of and absorbing permeable, water.
and therefore capable of
F.
f f o n u r f o e m u l
)
p
v absorbing water. J. nonporous ble of absorbing and impermeable, water.
and therefore capa-
35. Suppose kept at −1°C. Study The 2 had total been volume repeated, of runoff except measured in a lab
over the 600 min in the repeated study would most likely have been: A. near or at zero, because −1°C is below the freezing B. near point or of at water.
zero, because −1°C is above the freezing point of water. C. greater −1°C is below than that the freezing in the original point of study, water.
because
D. greater than that in the original study, because
−1°C is above the freezing point of water.
36. According to the results of Study 1, for which of the wind to zero speeds from did its maximum the runoff value volume before per 20 500 min min decrease
?
39. Which factor was varied in Study 1 but kept the same
in Study 2 ? A. Depth of sand layer F. G. 0 2.5 m/sec m/sec only
only H. 0.5 m/sec and 1.0 m/sec only
B. Wind speed C. D. Tilt Type of of box
material that melted J. 1.0 m/sec and 2.5 m/sec only
37. Compare the results of the 2 trials in Study 2. In which trial greater did maximum the volume value, of runoff and in per which 20 min trial reach did the a
volume of runoff per 20 min decrease to zero from the maximum value in the shorter amount of time?
40. Based on the diagram and the description of Study 1, which be used of to the calculate following the volume expressions of the would sand most layer likely in the greater maximum shorter time to zero
plastic box (before chipped ice was placed on top)? A. with sand layer with sand layer
F. 30 cm × 60 cm × 60 cm B. with sand layer without sand layer
G. 30 cm × 60 cm × 120 cm C. D. without without sand sand layer layer with without sand sand layer
layer
H. J. 60 60 cm cm × × 60 60 cm cm × × END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.
[See Note on page 52.] 60 120 cm
cm
)
v
L m ( n i m 0 2 r e
0 0.5 1.0 2.5
f
o v
p
wind speed (m/sec)
H.
f o n u r f o e m u l o
L m ( n i m 0 2 r e
0 0.5 1.0 2.5 wind speed (m/sec)
wind speed (m/sec)
G.
f
)
J.
f
)
p
0 0.5 1.0 2.5
v
p
0 0.5 1.0 2.5 wind speed (m/sec)
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L m ( n i m 0 2 r e
f o n u r f o e m u l o
L m ( n i m 0 2 r e
5151
If you plan to take the ACT with writing, sharpen your pencils and continue with the writing test on page 53.
If you do not plan to take the ACT with writing, skip to page 56 for instructions on scoring your multiple-choice tests.
5252
Practice Writing Test
Your Signature: ___________________________________________________________ (Do not print.)
Print Your Name Here: _____________________________________________________
Your Date of Birth:
– – Month Day Year Form 18AG24
WRITING TEST BOOKLET
You must take the multiple-choice tests before you take the writing test.
Directions
This is a test of your writing skills. You will have forty (40) minutes to read the prompt, plan your response, and write an essay in English. Before you begin working, read all material in this test booklet carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do.
You will write your essay on the lined pages in the answer document provided. Your writing on those pages will be scored. You may use the unlined pages in this test booklet to plan your essay. Your work on these pages will not be scored.
Your essay will be evaluated based on the evidence it provides of your ability to:
• clearly state your own perspective on a complex issue and analyze the relationship between your perspective and at least one other perspective
• develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
• organize your ideas clearly and logically
• communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English
Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
PO Box 168 Iowa City, IA 52243-0168
©2018 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved. NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied, reproduced, sold, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
5353
Kid Stuff
Toys are for children, right? Not anymore. In recent years, things that used to be considered “kid stuff” have grown in popularity among grownups. Nowadays, adults regularly play video games, watch animated movies and television shows, purchase dolls and other collectible figures, and read comic books for their own enjoyment. Is adult enjoyment of children’s entertainment merely a sign of immaturity? In what ways can playing with kid stuff change the way adults understand today’s youth? Given that toys, games, and publications that used to be exclusively for children are growing in popularity among adults, it is worth considering the effects and implications of this trend.
Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about the trend of adults playing with kid stuff.
Perspective One Perspective Two Perspective Three
It’s good for adults to be familiar with kid stuff. They’ll understand the lives of children better and be more responsive to their needs, interests, and problems.
Adults need to be models of maturity and responsibility. When they act and think like children, kids have no one to look to for guidance.
Children need their own cultural space—their own books, their own toys, their own movies—in which to explore their ideas. When adults start to take over that space, kids lose out.
Form 18AG24
Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay about the trend of adults playing with kid stuff. In your essay, be sure to:
• clearly state your own perspective on the issue and analyze the relationship between your perspective and at least one other perspective
• develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
• organize your ideas clearly and logically
• communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English
Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of those given, in partial agreement, or completely different.
54 54
Planning Your Essay
Your work on these prewriting pages will not be scored.
Use the space below and on the back cover to generate ideas and plan your essay. You may wish to consider the following as you think critically about the task:
Strengths and weaknesses of different perspectives on the issue
• What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?
• Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?
Your own knowledge, experience, and values
• What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?
• How will you support your perspective in your essay?
Note
• For your practice essay, you will need scratch paper to plan your essay and four lined sheets of paper for your response.
• On test day, if you are taking the paper test, you will receive a test booklet with space to plan your essay and an answer document with four lined pages on which to write your response.
• Read pages 61–62 for information and instructions on scoring your practice writing test.
5555
Scoring Your Tests
How to Score the Multiple-Choice Tests
Follow the instructions below and on the following pages to score your practice multiple-choice tests and review your performance.
Raw Scores
The number of questions you answered correctly on each test and in each reporting category is your raw score. Because there are many forms of the ACT, each with different questions, some forms will be slightly easier (and some slightly harder) than others. A raw score of 67 on one form of the English test, for example, may be about as difficult to earn as a raw score of 70 on another form of that test.
To compute your raw scores, check your answers with the scoring keys on pages 57–59. Count the number of correct answers for each of the four tests and seventeen reporting categories and enter the number in the blanks provided on those pages. These numbers are your raw scores on the tests and reporting categories.
Scale Scores
To adjust for the small differences that occur among different forms of the ACT, the raw scores for tests are converted into scale scores. Scale scores are printed on the reports sent to you and your college and scholarship choices.
When your raw scores are converted into scale scores, it becomes possible to compare your scores with those of examinees who took different test forms. For example, a scale score of 26 on the English test has the same meaning regardless of the form of the ACT on which it is based.
To determine the scale scores corresponding to your raw scores on the practice test, use Table 1 on page 60, which explains the procedures used to obtain scale scores from raw scores. This table shows the raw-to-scale score conversions for each test. Because each form of the ACT is unique, each form has somewhat different conversion tables. Consequently, this table provides only approximations of the raw-to-scale score conversions that would apply if a different form of the ACT were taken. Therefore, the scale scores obtained from the practice tests don’t match precisely the scale scores received from an actual administration of the ACT.
Computing the Composite Score
The Composite score is the average of the four scale scores in English, mathematics, reading, and science. If you left any of these tests blank, do not calculate a Composite score. If you take the ACT with writing, your writing results do not affect your Composite score.
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Comparing Your Scores
Information about comparing your scores on the practice multiple-choice tests with the scores of recent high school graduates who took the ACT can be found at www.actstudent.org.
Your scores and percent at or below are only estimates of the scores that you will receive during an actual administration of the ACT. Test scores are only one indicator of your level of learning. Consider your scores in connection with your grades, your performance in outside activities, and your career interests.
ACT College and Career Readiness Standards
The ACT College and Career Readiness Standards describe the types of skills, strategies, and understandings you will need to make a successful transition from high school to college. For English, mathematics, reading, and science, standards are provided for six score ranges that reflect the progression and complexity of the skills in each of the academic areas measured by the ACT tests. For writing, standards are provided for five score ranges. The ACT College and Career Readiness Standards and benchmark scores for each test can be found at www.act.org.
Reviewing Your Performance on the Multiple-Choice Tests
Consider the following as you review your scores:
•
Did you run out of time? Reread the information in this booklet on pacing yourself. You may need to adjust the way you use your time in responding to the questions.
•
Did you spend too much time trying to understand the directions for the tests? The directions for the practice tests are the same directions that will appear in your test booklet on test day. Make sure you understand them before test day.
•
Review the questions that you missed. Did you select a response that was an incomplete answer or that did not directly respond to the question being asked? Try to figure out what you overlooked in answering the questions.
•
Did a particular type of question confuse you? Did the questions you missed come from a particular reporting category? In reviewing your responses, check to see whether a particular type of question or a particular reporting category was more difficult for you.
Scoring Keys for the ACT Practice Tests Use the scoring key for each test to score your answer document for the multiple-choice tests. Mark a “1” in the blank for each question you answered correctly. Add up the numbers in each reporting category and enter the total number correct for each reporting category in the blanks provided. Also enter the total number correct for each test in the blanks provided. The total number correct for each test is the sum of the number correct in each reporting category.
Test 1: English—Scoring Key 1874FPRE
Reporting
Reporting *Reporting Category*
Category*
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Production of Writing (POW) _______
(23)
Knowledge of Language (KLA) _______
(12)
Conventions of Standard English (CSE) _______
(40)
Total Number Correct for English Test _______ (POW + KLA + CSE) (75)
Categories POW = Production of Writing KLA = Knowledge of Language Key
POW KLA CSE
Key
POW KLA CSE
CSE = Conventions of Standard English
1. A ___
39. D ___ 2. G ___
40. H ___ 3. A ___
41. B ___ 4. F ___
42. F ___ 5. C ___
43. C ___ 6. F ___
44. G ___ 7. D ___
45. A ___ 8. G ___
46. F ___ 9. C ___
47. B ___ 10. J ___
48. G ___ 11. C ___
49. D ___ 12. F ___
50. F ___ 13. B ___
51. B ___ 14. J ___
52. F ___ 15. B ___
53. D ___ 16. G ___
54. H ___ 17. C ___
55. D ___ 18. F ___
56. H ___ 19. C ___
57. A ___ 20. G ___
58. G ___ 21. D ___
59. C ___ 22. G ___
60. J ___ 23. C ___
61. C ___ 24. H ___
62. G ___ 25. B ___
63. D ___ 26. F ___
64. J ___ 27. C ___
65. B ___ 28. F ___
66. F ___ 29. D ___
67. B ___ 30. G ___
68. F ___ 31. C ___
69. D ___ 32. J ___
70. F ___ 33. C ___
71. C ___ 34. G ___
72. H ___ 35. A ___
73. D ___ 36. J ___
74. F ___ 37. C ___
75. D ___ 38. F ___
57 57
Test 2: Mathematics—Scoring Key 1874FPRE
Key
Reporting Category*
PHM
N A F G S IES MDL 1. C ___ 2. K ___ ___ 3. B ___ 4. J ___ 5. D ___ ___ 6. H ___ ___ 7. D ___ ___ 8. G ___ 9. D ___ 10. G ___ ___ 11. D ___ 12. H ___ ___ 13. B ___ 14. H ___ ___ 15. D ___ 16. K ___ 17. B ___ 18. K ___ ___ 19. B ___ 20. K ___ ___ 21. B ___ ___ 22. F ___ ___ 23. C ___ 24. J ___ ___ 25. A ___ 26. H ___ ___ 27. A ___ 28. H ___ ___ 29. E ___ 30. J ___ ___
Reporting Category*
PHM
Key
N A F G S IES MDL 31. E ___ 32. G ___ ___ 33. E ___ 34. H ___ 35. C ___ ___ 36. J ___ 37. A ___ 38. K ___ 39. D ___ 40. K ___ 41. A ___ ___ 42. G ___ 43. C ___ ___ 44. F ___ ___ 45. A ___ ___ 46. J ___ ___ 47. B ___ 48. G ___ ___ 49. B ___ 50. J ___ ___ 51. C ___ 52. F ___ 53. A ___ ___ 54. H ___ ___ 55. E ___ 56. H ___ ___ 57. B ___ 58. F ___ 59. A ___ 60. K ___ ___
Combine the totals of these columns and put in the blank for PHM in the box below.
*Reporting Categories PHM = Preparing for Higher Math
N = Number & Quantity A = Algebra F = Functions G = Geometry S = Statistics & Probability IES = Integrating Essential Skills MDL = Modeling
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Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
Preparing for Higher Math (PHM) _______ (N + A + F + G + S) (35)
Integrating Essential Skills (IES) _______
(25)
Total Number Correct for Mathematics Test _______ (PHM + IES) (60)
Modeling (MDL) _______ (Not included in total number correct for (28) mathematics test raw score)
Test 3: Reading—Scoring Key 1874FPRE
Reporting Category*
*Reporting Categories KID = Key Ideas & Details CS = Craft & Structure KID CS IKI
IKI = Integration of Knowledge & Ideas
1. A ___ 2. G ___ 3. A ___ 4. J ___ 5. C ___ 6. G ___ 7. D ___ 8. H ___ 9. C ___ 10. F ___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for: 11. D ___ 12. G ___ 13. D ___
Key Ideas & Details (KID) _______
(25)
14. J ___
Craft & Structure (CS) _______ 15. A ___
(11) 16. G ___ 17. B ___ 18. H ___
Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (IKI) _______
(4)
19. A ___ 20. H ___
Reporting Category*
Key
Key
KID CS IKI
21. C ___ 22. G ___ 23. D ___ 24. H ___ 25. D ___ 26. F ___ 27. C ___ 28. J ___ 29. A ___ 30. F ___ 31. D ___ 32. H ___ 33. B ___ 34. J ___ 35. C ___ 36. G ___ 37. A ___ 38. G ___ 39. A ___ 40. J ___
Total Number Correct for Reading Test _______ (KID + CS + IKI) (40)
Test 4: Science—Scoring Key 1874FPRE
Reporting Category*
*Reporting Categories IOD = Interpretation of Data SIN = Scientific Investigation IOD SIN EMI
EMI = Evaluation of Models,
Inferences & Experimental Results 1. C ___ 2. J ___ 3. B ___ 4. J ___ 5. A ___ 6. G ___ 7. C ___ 8. J ___ 9. C ___ 10. J ___ 11. A ___
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:
12. F ___ 13. A ___
Interpretation of Data (IOD) _______
(18) 14. H ___
Scientific Investigation (SIN) _______ 15. B ___
(12) 16. J ___
Evaluation of Models, Inferences & 17. A ___
Experimental Results (EMI) _______ 18. H ___ 19. A ___ 20. G ___
(10) Total Number Correct for Science Test _______ (IOD + SIN + EMI) (40) Reporting Category*
Key
Key
IOD SIN EMI
21. C ___ 22. H ___ 23. C ___ 24. H ___ 25. D ___ 26. J ___ 27. C ___ 28. F ___ 29. B ___ 30. F ___ 31. D ___ 32. F ___ 33. D ___ 34. G ___ 35. A ___ 36. J ___ 37. D ___ 38. J ___ 39. B ___ 40. G ___
5959
TABLE 1 Explanation of Procedures Used to Obtain Scale Scores from Raw Scores
On each of the four multiple-choice tests on which you marked any responses, the total number of correct responses yields a raw score. Use the table below to convert your raw scores to scale scores. For each test, locate and circle your raw score or the range of raw scores that includes it in the table below. Then, read across to either outside column of the table and circle the scale score that corresponds to that raw score. As you determine your scale scores, enter them in the blanks provided on the right. The highest possible scale score for each test is 36. The lowest possible scale score for any test on which you marked any responses is 1.
Next, compute the Composite score by averaging the four scale scores. To do this, add your four scale scores and divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest whole number. (Round down any fraction less than one-half; round up any fraction that is one-half or more.) Enter this number in the blank. This is your Composite score. The highest possible Composite score is 36. The lowest possible Composite score is 1.
ACT Test 1874FPRE Your Scale Score
English ________
Mathematics ________
Reading ________
Science ________
Sum of scores ________
Composite score (sum ÷ 4) ________
NOTE: If you left a test completely blank and marked no items, do not list a scale score for that test. If any test was completely blank, do not calculate a Composite score.
To calculate your writing score, use the rubric on pages 61–62.
1874FPRE
Raw Scores
Scale
Test 1
Test 2
Scale Score
English
Mathematics
Score Test 3 Reading
Test 4 Science
36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
74-75
59-60
40 71-73
57-58
38-39 70
55-56
37 69
54
36 68
53
34-35 67
51-52
33 66
49-50
32 64-65
47-48
31 63
45-46
30 61-62
42-44
— 59-60
39-41
29 56-58
37-38
28 53-55
34-36
26-27 50-52
32-33
25 47-49
31
23-24 44-46
29-30
22 41-43
27-28
20-21 39-40
25-26
19 37-38
22-24
18 35-36
19-21
16-17 32-34
16-18
15 29-31
13-15
14 26-28
10-12
12-13 24-25
8-9
11 22-23
7
10 19-21
5-6
8-9 16-18
4
7 13-15
—
6 11-12
3
5 09-10
—
— 7-8
2
4 6
—
3 4-5
1
2 3
—
— 2
—
1 0-1
0
0
40 — 39 38 — 37 36 — 35 34 32-33 31 29-30 26-28 24-25 22-23 20-21 18-19 17 15-16 14 13 11-12 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 — 2 1 — 0
36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
60 60
How to Score the Writing Test It is difficult to be objective about one’s own work. However, it is to your advantage to read your own writing critically, as doing so can help you grow as a writer and as a reader. It may also be helpful for you to give your practice essay to another reader, such as a classmate, parent, or teacher. To rate your essay, you and your reader(s) should review the guidelines and sample essays at www.actstudent.org and then use the scoring rubric below to assign your practice essay a score of 1 (low) through 6 (high) in each of the four writing domains (Ideas and Analysis, Development and Support, Organization, Language Use).
Scoring Rubric (below) The rubric presents the standards by which your essay will be evaluated. Readers will use this rubric to assign your essay four unique scores, one per writing domain. To score your essay, determine which scorepoint, in each domain, best describes the features of your writing. Because each domain receives its own score, the four scores you assign need not be identical. For example, you may find that your essay exhibits stronger skill in organization than in the development of ideas. In this case, you may determine that your essay should receive a higher score in Organization than in Development and Support.
The ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric
Ideas and Analysis Development and Support Organization Language Use
Score 6:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate effective skill in writing an argumentative essay.
The use of language enhances the argument. Word choice is skillful and precise. Sentence structures are consistently varied and clear. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are strategic and effective. While a few minor errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.
Score 5:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate well-developed skill in writing an argumentative essay.
The writer generates an
Development of ideas and
The response exhibits a argument that critically
support for claims deepen
skillful organizational engages with multiple
insight and broaden
strategy. The response is perspectives on the given
context. An integrated line
unified by a controlling idea issue. The argument’s
of skillful reasoning and
or purpose, and a logical thesis reflects nuance and
illustration effectively
progression of ideas precision in thought and
conveys the significance of
increases the effectiveness purpose. The argument
the argument. Qualifications
of the writer’s argument. establishes and employs an
and complications enrich
Transitions between and insightful context for
and bolster ideas and
within paragraphs analysis of the issue and its
analysis.
strengthen the relationships perspectives. The analysis
among ideas. examines implications, complexities and tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.
The use of language works in service of the argument. Word choice is precise. Sentence structures are clear and varied often. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are purposeful and productive. While minor errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.
Score 4:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate adequate skill in writing an argumentative essay.
The writer generates an
Development of ideas and
The response exhibits a argument that productively
support for claims deepen
productive organizational engages with multiple
understanding. A mostly
strategy. The response is perspectives on the given
integrated line of purposeful
mostly unified by a issue. The argument’s
reasoning and illustration
controlling idea or purpose, thesis reflects precision in
capably conveys the
and a logical sequencing of thought and purpose. The
significance of the
ideas contributes to the argument establishes and
argument. Qualifications
effectiveness of the employs a thoughtful
and complications enrich
argument. Transitions context for analysis of the
ideas and analysis.
between and within issue and its perspectives.
paragraphs consistently The analysis addresses
clarify the relationships implications, complexities
among ideas. and tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.
The writer generates an
Development of ideas and
The response exhibits a
The use of language argument that engages with
support for claims clarify
clear organizational
conveys the argument with multiple perspectives on the
meaning and purpose.
strategy. The overall shape
clarity. Word choice is given issue. The argument’s
Lines of clear reasoning
of the response reflects an
adequate and sometimes thesis reflects clarity in
and illustration adequately
emergent controlling idea or
precise. Sentence thought and purpose. The
convey the significance of
purpose. Ideas are logically
structures are clear and argument establishes and
the argument. Qualifications
grouped and sequenced.
demonstrate some variety. employs a relevant context
and complications extend
Transitions between and
Stylistic and register for analysis of the issue and
ideas and analysis.
within paragraphs clarify
choices, including voice its perspectives. The
the relationships among
and tone, are appropriate analysis recognizes
ideas.
for the rhetorical purpose. implications, complexities
While errors in grammar, and tensions, and/or
usage, and mechanics are underlying values and
present, they rarely impede assumptions.
understanding.
6161
The ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric
Ideas and Analysis Development and Support Organization Language Use
Score 3:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate some developing skill in writing an argumentative essay.
The writer generates an argument that responds to multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects some clarity in thought and purpose. The argument establishes a limited or tangential context for analysis of the issue and its perspectives. Analysis is simplistic or somewhat unclear.
Development of ideas and support for claims are mostly relevant but are overly general or simplistic. Reasoning and illustration largely clarify the argument but may be somewhat repetitious or imprecise.
The response exhibits a basic organizational structure. The response largely coheres, with most ideas logically grouped. Transitions between and within paragraphs sometimes clarify the relationships among ideas.
The use of language is basic and only somewhat clear. Word choice is general and occasionally imprecise. Sentence structures are usually clear but show little variety. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are not always appropriate for the rhetorical purpose. Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, but they generally do not impede understanding.
Score 2:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate weak or inconsistent skill in writing an argumentative essay.
The writer generates an argument that weakly responds to multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis, if evident, reflects little clarity in thought and purpose. Attempts at analysis are incomplete, largely irrelevant, or consist primarily of restatement of the issue and its perspectives.
Development of ideas and support for claims are weak, confused, or disjointed. Reasoning and illustration are inadequate, illogical, or circular, and fail to fully clarify the argument.
The response exhibits a rudimentary organizational structure. Grouping of ideas is inconsistent and often unclear. Transitions between and within paragraphs are misleading or poorly formed.
The use of language is inconsistent and often unclear. Word choice is rudimentary and frequently imprecise. Sentence structures are sometimes unclear. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are inconsistent and are not always appropriate for the rhetorical purpose. Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are present, and they sometimes impede understanding.
Score 1:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate little or no skill in writing an argumentative essay.
The writer fails to generate an argument that responds intelligibly to the task. The writer’s intentions are difficult to discern. Attempts at analysis are unclear or irrelevant.
Ideas lack development, and claims lack support. Reasoning and illustration are unclear, incoherent, or largely absent.
The response does not exhibit an organizational structure. There is little grouping of ideas. When present, transitional devices fail to connect ideas.
The use of language fails to demonstrate skill in responding to the task. Word choice is imprecise and often difficult to comprehend. Sentence structures are often unclear. Stylistic and register choices are difficult to identify. Errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are pervasive and often impede understanding.
Calculating Your Writing Subject Score Complete these steps to calculate your Writing Subject Score (2–12 score range).
Score Calculation Steps Domain
Rubric Score
Domain Score
1. Determine Rubric Score for each Domain
2. Multiply each Rubric Score by 2 to get Domain Score
Ideas and Analysis ____ x 2 = ______
Development and Support ____ x 2 = ______
Organization ____ x 2 = ______
Language Use and Conventions ____ x 2 = ______
3. Find the Sum of all Domain Scores (range 8–48) Sum of Domain Scores ______
4. Divide Sum by 4 (range 2–12)* Writing Subject Score ______
*Round value to the nearest whole number. Round down any fraction less than one-half; round up any fraction that is one-half or more.
62 62
You may wish to remove this sample answer document from the booklet to use in a practice test session for the four multiple-choice tests.
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PRE A01
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A11
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A31
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A02
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A13
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A04
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A14
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A05
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A15
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A25
A35 Incorrect marks:
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A06
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A16
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A26
A36 Overlapping mark:
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A07
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A17
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A27
A37 Cross-out mark:
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A08
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A18
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A28
A38 Smudged erasure:
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A09
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A19
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A29
A39 Mark is too light:
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A10
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A20
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A30
A40
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66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
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D A
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29
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42
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55
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J F
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30
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43
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D A
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31
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J F
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19
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32
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45
A
B
C
D
58
F
G
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A
B
C
D A
B
C
D
20
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33
A
B
C
D
46
F
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59
A
B
C
D
F
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J F
G
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21
D
34
F
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47
A
B
C
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60
F
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A
B
C
D A
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A
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61
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J F
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23
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D A
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D F
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A
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51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
A
B
C
D
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11
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21
31
41 F
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H
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12
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42 A
B
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33
43 F
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44 A
B
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15
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35
45 F
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46 A
B
C
D
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37
47 F
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48 A
B
C
D
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49 F
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A
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8
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22
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36
J F
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\ A
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23
30
37
D A
\ B
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\ D
10
\ F
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\ J
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24
31
38
J F
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11
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
18
25
32
39
D A
\ B
\ C
\ D
12
\ F
\ G
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\ J
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26
33
40
J F
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\ J
13
\ A
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\ C
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20
27
34 A
\ B
\ C
\ D
14
\ F
\ G
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\ J
21
28
35
1
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
8
\ F
\ G
\ H
\ J
15
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
22
\ F
\ G
\ H
\ J
29
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
36
\ F
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\ H
\ J 2
\ F
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\ J
9
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
16
\ F
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23
\ A
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\ C
\ D
30
\ F
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37
\ A
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\ C
\ D 3
\ A
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\ C
\ D
10
\ F
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17
\ A
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\ C
\ D
24
\ F
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\ J
31
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
38
\ F
\ G
\ H
\ J 4
\ F
\ G
\ H
\ J
11
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
18
\ F
\ G
\ H
\ J
25
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
32
\ F
\ G
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\ J
39
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D 5
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
12
\ F
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\ J
19
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
26
\ F
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33
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
40
\ F
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\ J 6
\ F
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13
\ A
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\ C
\ D
20
\ F
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27
\ A
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34
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\ J 7
\ A
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\ D
14
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\ A
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\ D
28
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35
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1
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6
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11
16
21
26 2
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7
\ A
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\ C
\ D
\ E
12
17
22
27 3
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
\ E
8
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\ K
13
18
23
28 4
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9
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
\ E
14
19
24
29 5
\ A
\ B
\ C
\ D
\ E
10
\ F
\ G
\ H
\ J
\ K
15
20
25
30
ACT STUDENT REVIEW: The test administrator will give you instructions for completing this section.
Yes No
4 5 6
Yes No
Yes No
Yes No
Yes No 1
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A F A F A F A F A F
F A F A F A F A F A F A F
B G B G B G B G B G
G B G B G B G B G B G B G
\ 1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4 \ 5 \ 6 \ 7 \ 8 \ 9 \ 0
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C H C H C H C H C H
H C H C H C H C H C H C H
\ 1
\ 1 \ 2
\ 2 \ 3
\ 3 \ 4
\ 4 \ 5
\ 5 \ 6
\ 6 \ 7
\ 7 \ 8
\ 8 \ 9
\ 9 \ 0
\ 0
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D J D J D J D J D J
\ 1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4 \ 5 \ 6 \ 7 \ 8 \ 9 \ 0
\ 1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4 \ 5 \ 6 \ 7 \ 8 \ 9 \ 0
\ 1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4 \ 5 \ 6 \ 7 \ 8 \ 9 \ 0
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A F A F A
A F A F A F A F A F
A F A F A F A
B G B G B
B G B G B G B G B G
B G B G B G B
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C H C H C
C H C H C H C H C H
C H C H C H C
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FORM
Print your 3-character Test Form in the boxes above and fill in the corresponding oval at the right.
D J D J D
D J D J D J D J D J
D J D J D J D
\ E \ K \ E \ K \ E
\ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K
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F A F A F
A F A F A F A F A F
F A F A F A F
G B G B G
B G B G B G B G B G
G B G B G B G
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H C H C H
C H C H C H C H C H
H C H C H C H
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J D J D J
D J D J D J D J D J
J D J D J D J
\ K \ E \ K \ E \ K
\ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K
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A F A F A
A F A F A F A F A F
A F A F A F A
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B G B G B
B G B G B G B G B G
B G B G B G B
C H C H C
C H C H C H C H C H
C H C H C H C
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D J D J D
D J D J D J D J D J
D J D J D J D
\ E \ K \ E \ K \ E
\ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K
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F A F A F
A F A F A F A F A F
F A F A F
\ 1
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\ 2 \ 3
\ 3 \ 4
\ 4 \ 5
\ 5 \ 6
\ 6 \ 7
\ 7 \ 8
\ 8 \ 9
\ 9 \ 0
\ 0
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G B G B G
B G B G B G B G B G
G B G B G
H C H C H
C H C H C H C H C H
H C H C H
\ 1 \ 2 \ 3 \ 4 \ 5 \ 6 \ 7 \ 8 \ 9 \ 0
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J D J D J
D J D J D J D J D J
\ K \ E \ K \ E \ K
\ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K \ E \ K
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