2022l2023
Preparing for the ACT®  Test

What’s Inside
y Full-length practice ACT test, including the optional writing test
y Information about the multiple-choice and writing  sections
y Test-taking strategies
y What to expect on test day
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www.act.org

A Message to Students

This booklet is an important first step as you get ready for college and your career.

The information here is intended to help you do your best on the ACT to gain admission to colleges and universities. Included are helpful hints and test-taking strategies, as well as a complete practice ACT, with “retired” questions from earlier tests given on previous test dates at ACT test sites. Also featured are a practice writing test, a sample answer document, answer keys, and self-scoring  instructions.
Read this booklet carefully and take the practice tests well before test day. That way, you will be familiar with the tests, what they measure, and strategies you can use to do your best on test day.
You may also want to consider The Official ACT® Self-Paced Course, Powered by Kaplan® to learn test content and strategies

in a virtual classroom. To view all of our test preparation options, go to www.act.org/the-act/testprep.

Contents
Preparing for the ACT® Test  1 A Message to Students     2 Overview of the ACT     2
Test-Taking Strategies   3

Prohibited Behavior at the Test Center   5

Content of the ACT Sections    6 Taking the Practice Tests    10  Practice Multiple-Choice Sections    11 Practice Writing Test    52
Practice Answer Document   55

Scoring Your Tests   63

Overview of
the ACT
The ACT test consists of four multiple-choice sections— English, mathematics, reading, and science—with an optional writing section. Some colleges and universities require or accept ACT writing scores, so you may consider taking the writing section.

Test	Questions	Minutes per Test	
English	75	45	
Mathematics	60	60	
Reading	40	35	
Science	40	35	
Writing (optional)	1 essay	40	

After the science test you should expect to take a shorter, multiple-choice test covering one of the previous subject areas. The results of the fifth test help develop future test questions and will not be reflected on your scores, so please try your best.

© 2022 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.	JA00003.CJ09751

Test-Taking Strategies

Test Strategies for the ACT
Each multiple-choice section contains questions with either four or five answers from which you are to choose the correct or best answer.
If you do not complete all your sections and want to test again, you will need to re-register and pay for a new test date. Once you access test content, you cannot request a Test Date Change.
Here are three strategies to help you prepare for the ACT:
9Get familiar with the content of the sections. Review the information in this booklet. Note which content areas make up a large proportion of the sections. The topics
included in each content area are examples of possible topics; they do not include all possibilities.
9Update your knowledge and skills in the content areas.
Review content areas that you have studied but are not
fresh in your mind. Refresh your knowledge in the content areas that make up large portions of the test.
9Study content areas you are not familiar with.
If some content areas of the ACT are unfamiliar to you, consider taking coursework in those areas before you take the test.
Tips for Taking the Multiple-Choice Sections
9Pace yourself.
It is important that you have enough time to read the passages/questions and figure out your responses. For  each section, subtract the number of minutes you estimate you will spend skimming the passages or reading the information provided, then divide the total number of remaining minutes allowed by the number of questions to determine the estimated time you should spend on each question. If possible, spend less time on each question and use the remaining time allowed for a section to review your work and return to the questions in that section that were most difficult for you.
The time limits set for each section give nearly everyone enough time to finish all questions. However, you will want to pace yourself to avoid spending too much time on one passage or puzzling over an answer to a specific problem. Go on to other questions and come back if there is time.

9Read the directions carefully.
Before you begin each section, read the directions carefully.
y The English, reading, and science sections ask for the best answer. Read and consider all of the answer
choices and choose the answer that best responds to the question.
y The mathematics section asks for the correct answer.
You may want to work out the answer you feel is
correct and look for it among the choices given. If your answer is not among the choices provided, reread the question and consider all the answer choices.
9Read each question carefully.
You need to understand exactly what each question asks. Some questions will require you to go through several  steps to find the correct or best answer, while others can be answered more quickly.
9Answer the easy questions first.
A good strategy is to answer the easy questions and skip the questions you find difficult. After answering the easy questions, go back and answer the more difficult questions if you have time.
9Use logic on more difficult questions.
When you return to the more difficult questions, try to use logic to eliminate incorrect answers. Compare the answer choices to each other and note how they differ.
Such differences may provide clues as to what the question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect answers as you can, then make an educated guess from the remaining answers. 9Answer every question.
Your scores in the sections will be based only on the
number of questions that you answer correctly; there is no penalty for guessing. Try to answer every question within the time allowed for each section.
9Review your work.
If there is time left after you have answered every question in a section, go back and check your work. You will not be allowed to go back to any other section or mark responses to a section after time has been called in that section.
When testing on an answer document:
9Be precise in choosing your responses.
If you are taking the ACT on paper, make sure that you properly select the desired answer on your answer document. Marks on your answer document that extend beyond the intended oval may be scored as incorrect.
9Erase completely.
If you want to change a multiple-choice answer on paper, make sure you erase completely. Do not cross out answers or use correction fluid or tape; you must erase. Smudges or unintended marks may cause errors in scoring.

Get Ready
Prepare well in advance for the ACT.
y Know what to expect on test day. Review the information in this booklet and at www.actstudent.org.
y Take the practice tests in the order they are shown in
this booklet, time yourself, and review your responses
using the answer keys.
y Carefully review the test-day checklist at
www.act.org/the-act/checklist.
y Get plenty of rest the night before the tests.
Note: Most procedures in this booklet refer to testing on a National test date at an ACT test center (within the United States, US territories, or Puerto Rico). Procedures may differ slightly if you take a different administration of the ACT test.

On Test Day
Report on Time
y For National test dates, you must report to your
assigned test site by the time stated on your admission
ticket (usually 8:00 a.m.). If you are late, you will not be admitted to test. If your ticket does not list a specific test room, the test staff or posted signs will direct you.

What to Bring
y A printed copy of your admission ticket. Your ticket
contains important information that helps connect your
answer document to the registration on file. If you have lost your ticket, you can print another through your MyACT account. If you do not bring your ticket on test day, your scores may be delayed.
y Acceptable photo identification. You will not be
permitted to test if your ID does not meet ACT
requirements. See ACT requirements for ID on your ticket or at www.act.org/the-act/id.
y Number 2 Pencil. Bring sharpened No. 2 pencils and
good erasers (no mechanical pencils or ink pens). Do
not bring any other writing instruments. You will not be allowed to use them.
Note: International test sites are provided approved whiteboards and erasable markers.
y Watch. You may bring a watch to pace yourself, but
do not bring a watch with an alarm. During testing,
your watch must be removed and placed on your desk face up. If your alarm sounds during testing, you’ll be dismissed and your answers will not be scored.
y Calculator. Bring a permitted calculator to be used on
the mathematics test only. You are not required to use
a calculator at all, but if you do, it is your responsibility to know whether your calculator is permitted. For
a current copy of the calculator policy, please visit
www.act.org/calculator-policy.html.
y Snacks. You may consume snacks and drinks outside the test room during the break.

What NOT to Bring
y Textbooks, foreign language or other dictionaries,
scratch paper, notes, or other aids
y Highlighter pens, colored pens or pencils, or correction fluid/tape
y Any electronic device, other than a permitted calculator
y Reading material
In the Test Room
y Test staff will direct you to a seat. If you need a left-
handed desk, tell the staff as you enter.
y Do not leave the test room after you have been admitted.
y Only pencils, erasers, a permitted calculator, your watch
(if brought to the test center), and your paper ticket will
be allowed on your desk.
y You will be required to put all other personal belongings away.
y Reporting time for the test will be 8:00 a.m. Testing will
begin as soon as all examinees who are present at 8:00
a.m. are checked in and seated.
y Listen carefully to all directions read by the test staff.
y It is important that you follow all directions carefully.
y You will normally be dismissed at about 12:35 p.m. if you
take the ACT (no writing), or at about 1:35 p.m. if you take
the ACT with writing.
For Students Approved to Test at National Test Sites With One and One-Half Time
Testing with one and one-half time is available on the multiple-choice and/or writing sections for students with diagnosed disabilities and/or limited English proficiency.
If you are approved for one and one-half time at a National test site, you will have 50% additional time to complete each section.

Test	Questions	Minutes per Test	
English	75	70	
Mathematics	60	90	
Reading	40	55	
Science	40	55	
Writing (optional)	1 essay	60	

The full ACT:

After Testing
Voiding Your Test on Test Day
If you have to leave the test site before completing all sections, you must decide whether or not you want your test scored and then inform the test staff of your decision. If you do not, your test will be scored.
If you do not complete all your sections and want to test again, you will need to re-register and pay for a new test date. Once you access test content, you cannot request a Test Date Change.
Testing More Than Once
If you wish to take the test again to increase your scores, ACT will calculate and report a superscore for students who have taken the ACT test more than once. This gives colleges the option to use the student’s best scores from all test administrations, rather than scores from just one sitting, in their admission and scholarship decisions.
For information about superscoring, see
www.act.org/the-act/superscore.
For more information about retaking the ACT, see
www.act.org/the-act/retaking.

Testing More Than Once In the Same Administration
You may not receive scores from more than one test taken during a scheduled National or International test date.
For example, you may test on Saturday, on an authorized non-Saturday date, or on a rescheduled test date—but not on more than one of those days on a particular test date.
If you are admitted and allowed to test a second time on a particular test date, we will report only the scores from the first test. The second set of scores will be canceled without refund.
Requesting a Copy of Your Test Questions and Answers
On certain test dates, you may order (for an additional fee) a copy of the multiple-choice test questions used to determine your scores, a list of your answers, and the answer key. If you took the writing section, you will also
receive a copy of the writing prompt, scoring guidelines, and the scores assigned to your essay.
This service is not available for all test dates and is available only for National testing or Special testing in the United States, US Territories, and Puerto Rico. Restrictions apply.
If you are interested in this service, check
www.act.org/the-act/tir for more detail.

Prohibited Behavior at the Test Center

A complete list of the prohibited behaviors was provided during the registration process. The following behaviors can also result in dismissal. Please be reminded of the following:
y For paper testing, you may not fill in or alter responses
to any multiple-choice questions or continue to write or
alter the essay after time has been called. This includes fixing stray marks.
y For paper testing, you may not look at any section of the
test outside of the designated time for that test.
y You may not access an electronic device (other than your testing computer and mouse, when testing online)
at any time during testing or during breaks. All other devices must be powered off and placed out of sight from the time you are admitted to the test room until you are dismissed.

y You may not give or receive assistance by any means.
This includes looking at another person’s test.
y The test is confidential and remains so even after the exam is complete. You may not remove any materials
from the test room. You may not discuss or share test questions, answers, or test form identification numbers during test administration, during breaks, or after the test.
y You may not disclose test questions or answers in any
way or at any time, including through social media, in
whole or in part.
y You may not eat, drink, or use reading materials in the test room.
If you are observed or suspected of engaging in prohibited behavior, you will be dismissed and your test will not be scored.

Content of the ACT Sections

English Section
The English section consists of several essays, or passages, each followed by a set of multiple-choice questions.
y For paper testing, some questions refer to underlined
portions of the passage and offer several alternatives
to the underlined portion. For online testing, these questions will refer to highlighted portions of the passage. You decide which choice is most appropriate in the context of the passage.
y Some questions ask about an underlined or highlighted
portion, a section of the passage, or the passage as
a whole. You decide which choice best answers the question posed.
y Many questions offer “NO CHANGE” to the passage as
one of the choices.
The English section puts you in the position of a writer who makes decisions to revise and edit a text. Essays in different genres provide a variety of rhetorical situations. These passages are chosen for their appropriateness in assessing writing and language skills and to reflect students’ interests and experiences.
Four scores are reported for the English section: a score for the section overall and three reporting category scores based on specific knowledge and skills. The approximate percentage of the section devoted to each reporting category is:
Production of Writing (29–32%)
This category requires you to apply your understanding of the purpose and focus of a piece of writing.
Topic Development: Demonstrate an understanding of,
and control over, the rhetorical aspects of texts. Identify
the purposes of parts of texts, determine whether a text or part of a text has met its intended goal, and evaluate the relevance of material in terms of a text’s focus.
Organization, Unity, and Cohesion: Use various strategies
to ensure that a text is logically organized, flows smoothly,
and has an effective introduction and conclusion.
Knowledge of Language (15–17%)
These questions require you to demonstrate effective language use through ensuring precise and concise word choice and maintaining consistency in style and tone.
Conventions of Standard English (52–55%)
These questions require you to apply an understanding of the conventions of standard English grammar, usage, and mechanics to revise and edit text.
Sentence Structure and Formation: Apply
understanding of sentence structure and formation in a
text and make revisions to improve the writing.
Punctuation: Recognize common problems with standard English punctuation and make revisions to
improve the writing.
Usage: Recognize common problems with standard English usage in a text and make revisions to improve
the writing.

Tips for Taking the English Section
9Be aware of the writing style used in each passage.
The passages cover a variety of topics and are written in a variety of styles. It is important that you take into account the writing style used in each passage. When responding to a question, be sure to understand the context of
the question. Consider how the sentence containing an underlined or highlighted portion fits in with the
surrounding sentences and into the passage as a whole.
9Examine the underlined or highlighted portions of the passage.
Before responding to a question with an underlined or highlighted portion, carefully examine what is underlined or highlighted in the text. Consider the elements of writing included in each underlined or highlighted portion.
y Some questions will ask you to base your decision on
some specific element of writing, such as the tone or
emphasis the text should convey.
y Some questions will ask you to choose the alternative to the underlined or highlighted portion that is NOT or
LEAST acceptable.
The answer choices for each question will contain changes in one or more of those elements of writing.
9Be aware of questions with no underlined portions.
You will be asked some questions about a section of the passage or about the passage as a whole, in light of a given rhetorical situation. Questions of this type are often identified by a question number in a box located at the appropriate point in the passage or by a highlighted asterisk in brackets.
Questions about the entire passage are placed at the end of the passage. For paper testing, these questions are introduced by a horizontal box enclosing the following instruction: “Questions    and    ask about the preceding passage as a whole.” For online testing, similar instructions will appear above the individual questions.
9Note the differences in the answer choices.
Many of the questions in the section will involve more than one aspect of writing. Examine each answer choice and how it differs from the others. Be careful not to choose an answer that corrects one error but causes a different error. 9Determine the best answer.
When a question asks you to choose the best alternative
to an underlined or highlighted portion, consider the following approach:
y Decide how the underlined or highlighted portion might
best be phrased in standard written English or in terms
of the particular question posed.
~ If the underlined or highlighted portion is the best answer, select “NO CHANGE.”

~ If not, check to see whether your phrasing is one  of the other answer choices. If you do not find your
phrasing, choose the best of the answers presented.
y For questions cued by a number in a box or a highlighted asterisk in brackets, decide which choice is
most appropriate in terms of the question posed or the stated rhetorical situation.
y Reread the sentence, using your selected answer. Once
you have selected the answer you feel is best, reread the
corresponding sentence(s) of the passage, inserting your selected answer at the appropriate place in the text to make sure it is the best answer within the context of the passage.

Mathematics Section
The mathematics section is designed to assess the mathematical skills students have typically acquired in courses taken up to the beginning of grade 12.
Most questions are self-contained. Some questions may belong to a set of several questions (e.g., each about the same graph or chart).
The material covered emphasizes the major content areas that are prerequisites to successful performance in entry-level courses in college mathematics. Knowledge of basic formulas and computational skills are assumed as background for the problems, but recall of complex formulas and extensive computation are not required.
Note: You may use a permitted calculator on the mathematics section. See
www.act.org/calculator-policy.html    for    details    about prohibited models and features.
Nine scores are reported for the mathematics section: a score for the section overall and eight reporting category scores based on specific mathematical knowledge and skills. The approximate percentage of the section devoted to each reporting category is:
Preparing for Higher Math (57–60%)
This category covers the more recent mathematics that students are learning, starting when they began using algebra as a general way of expressing and solving equations. This category is divided into five subcategories:
Number and Quantity (7–10%): Demonstrate
knowledge of real and complex number systems. Reason
with numerical quantities in many forms, including expressions with integer and rational exponents and vectors and matrices.
Algebra (12–15%): Solve, graph, and model multiple types
of expressions. Interpret and use many different kinds
of equations, such as linear, polynomial, radical, and exponential relationships. Find solutions to systems of equations, even when represented by a simple matrix equation, and apply results to real-world contexts.
Functions (12–15%): Demonstrate knowledge of function:
definition, notation, representation, and application. Use
functions including linear, radical, piecewise, polynomial, exponential, and logarithmic. Manipulate and translate functions, as well as interpret and use important features of graphs.

Geometry (12–15%): Apply your knowledge of shapes and solids, using concepts such as congruence and similarity
relationships or surface area and volume measurements. Apply your understanding to composite objects and solve for missing values in triangles, circles, and other
figures. Use trigonometric ratios and equations of conic sections.
Statistics & Probability (8–12%): Describe center and
spread of distributions. Apply and analyze data collection
methods. Understand and model relationships in bivariate data. Calculate probabilities by recognizing the related sample spaces.
Integrating Essential Skills (40–43%)
This category focuses on measuring how well you can synthesize and apply your understandings and skills to solve more complex problems. The questions ask you to address concepts such as:
y rates and percentages
y proportional relationships
y area, surface area, and volume
y average and median
y expressing numbers in different ways
You will solve non-routine problems that involve combining skills in chains of steps, applying skills in varied contexts, understanding connections, and demonstrating fluency.
Modeling
This category represents all questions that involve producing, interpreting, understanding, evaluating, and improving models. Each question is also counted in other appropriate reporting mathematics categories. This category is an overall measure of how well you use modeling skills across mathematical topics.
Tips for Taking the Mathematics Section
9If you use a calculator, use it wisely.
All of the mathematics problems can be solved without a calculator. Many of the problems are best done without a calculator. Use good judgment in deciding when, and when not, to use a calculator. For example, for some problems
you may wish to do scratch work to clarify your thoughts on the question before you begin using a calculator to do computations.
9Solve the problem.
To work out solutions to the problems, you will usually  do scratch work. You may wish to glance over the answer choices after reading the questions. However, working backwards from all five answer choices can take a lot of time and may not be effective.
9Find your solution among the answer choices.
Once you have solved the problem, look for your answer among the choices. If your answer is not included among the choices, carefully reread the problem to see whether you missed important information. Pay careful attention to the question being asked. If an equation is to be selected, check to see whether the equation you think is best can be transformed into one of the answer choices provided.

9Make sure you answer the question.
The solutions to many questions will involve several steps. Make sure your answer accounts for all the necessary steps. Frequently, an answer choice is an intermediate result, not the final answer.
9Make sure your answer is reasonable.
Sometimes an error in computation will result in an answer that is not practically possible for the situation described. Always think about your answer to determine whether it is reasonable.
9Check your answer.
You may arrive at an incorrect solution by making common errors in the problem-solving process. If there is time remaining before the end of the mathematics section, it is important that you reread the questions and check your answers to make sure they are correct.

Reading Section
The reading section measures your ability to read closely, reason logically about texts using evidence, and integrate information from multiple sources.
The questions focus on the mutually supportive skills that readers must bring to bear in studying written materials across a range of subject areas. Specifically, questions will ask you to:
y determine main ideas
y locate and interpret significant details
y understand sequences of events
y make comparisons
y comprehend  cause-effect  relationships
y determine the meaning of context-dependent words,
phrases, and statements
y draw generalizations
y analyze the author’s or narrator’s voice and method
y analyze claims and evidence in arguments
y integrate information from multiple texts
The reading section is composed of multiple parts. Some parts consist of one long prose passage and others consist of shorter prose passages. The passages represent the levels and kinds of text commonly encountered in first-year college curricula.
Each passage is preceded by a heading that identifies the author and source, and may include important background information to help you understand the passage. Each portion contains a set of multiple-choice questions. These questions do not test the rote recall of facts from outside the passage or rules of formal logic, nor do they contain isolated vocabulary questions. In sections that contain two shorter passages, some of the questions involve both of those passages.
Four scores are reported for the reading section: a score for the section overall and three reporting category scores based on specific knowledge and skills. Score reports also include an Understanding Complex Texts indicator. The approximate percentage of the section devoted to each reporting category is:

Key Ideas & Details (52–60%)
This category requires you to read texts closely to determine central ideas and themes; summarize information
and ideas accurately; and show an understanding of relationships and draw logical inferences and conclusions, including understanding sequential, comparative, and cause-effect relationships.
Craft & Structure (25–30%)
These questions ask you to:
y determine word and phrase meanings
y analyze an author’s word choice rhetorically
y analyze text structure
y understand the author’s purpose and perspective
y analyze characters’ points of view
y interpret authorial decisions rhetorically
y differentiate between various perspectives and sources
of information
Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (13–23%)
This category requires you to understand authors’ claims, differentiate between facts and opinions, and use evidence to make connections between different texts that are related by topic. Some questions will require you to  analyze how authors construct arguments and to evaluate reasoning and evidence from various sources.
Visual and Quantitative Information in the Reading Section
One passage may be accompanied by an element like a graph, figure, or table that contains information relevant  to the reading task. In the passage containing these visual and quantitative elements, some of the questions will ask you to identify or interpret information from the graphic or integrate the information from the passage and graphic to determine the best answer.
Tips for Taking the Reading Section
9Read each passage carefully.
Before you begin answering a question, read all of the content carefully. Be conscious of relationships between or among ideas. Take note about important ideas in the passages.
9Refer to the passages when answering the questions.
Answers to some of the questions will be found by referring to what is explicitly stated in the text of the passages. Other questions will require you to determine implicit meanings and to draw conclusions, comparisons, and generalizations. Consider the text before you answer any question.

Science Section
The science section measures the interpretation, analysis, evaluation, reasoning, and problem-solving skills required in the natural sciences. The section presents several authentic scientific scenarios, each followed by a number of multiple- choice questions.
The content includes biology, chemistry, Earth/space sciences (e.g., geology, astronomy, and meteorology), and physics. Advanced knowledge in these areas is not

required, but background knowledge acquired in general, introductory science courses may be needed to correctly answer some of the questions.
The science section focuses on multidimensional assessment, with questions that assess science content in concert with science skills and practices.
The questions require you to:
y recognize and understand the basic features of, and concepts related to, the provided information
y examine critically the relationship between the
information provided and the conclusions drawn or
hypotheses developed
y generalize from given information to gain new information, draw conclusions, or make predictions.
Note: You are not permitted to use a calculator in the science section.
Four scores are reported for the science section: a score for the section overall and three reporting category scores based on scientific knowledge, skills, and practices. The approximate percentage of the section devoted to each reporting category is:
Interpretation of Data (40–50%)
This category asks you to manipulate and analyze scientific data presented in scientific tables, graphs, and diagrams (e.g., recognize trends in data, translate tabular data into graphs, interpolate and extrapolate, and reason mathematically).
Scientific Investigation (20–30%)
This category requires you to understand experimental tools, procedures, and design (e.g., identify controls and variables) and compare, extend, and modify experiments (e.g., predict the results of additional trials).
Evaluation of Models, Inferences, & Experimental Results (25–35%)
These questions ask you to judge the validity of scientific information and formulate conclusions and predictions based on that information (e.g., determine which explanation for a scientific phenomenon is supported by new findings).
The science section presents information in three formats:
Data Representation (25–35%): This format presents graphic and tabular material similar to that found in
science journals and texts. The questions associated with this format measure skills such as recognizing relationships among data in tables and graphs; interpolation and extrapolation; and translating tabular data into graphs.
Research Summaries (45–60%): This format provides
descriptions and results of one or more related
experiments. The questions focus on the design of the experiments and the interpretation of experimental results.
Conflicting Viewpoints (15–20%): This format presents
two or more explanations for the same scientific
phenomena that, because they are based on differing premises or incomplete data, are inconsistent with one another. The questions focus on the understanding, analysis, and comparison of alternative viewpoints or hypotheses.

Tips for Taking the Science Section
9Read the passage carefully.
Before you begin answering a question, read the scientific material provided. It is important that you read the entire text and examine any tables, graphs, or figures. You may take notes about important ideas. Some of the information sets will describe experiments. You should consider the experimental design, including the controls and variables, because questions are likely to address this component of scientific research.
9Note the different viewpoints in passages.
Some material will present conflicting viewpoints, and the questions will ask you to distinguish among them. It may be helpful for you to take notes summarizing each viewpoint about specific portions of the section.

Writing Section (Optional)
If you register for the ACT with writing, you will take the writing section after the four multiple-choice sections. Your score in the writing section will not affect your scores on the multiple-choice or your Composite score.
The writing section is a 40-minute essay test that measures your writing skills—specifically, writing skills taught in
high school English classes and in entry-level college composition courses.
The section consists of one writing prompt that describes a complex issue and provides three different perspectives on the issue. You are asked to read the prompt and write
an essay in which you develop your own perspective on the issue. Your essay must analyze the relationship between your own perspective and one or more other perspectives. You may adopt one of the perspectives given in the prompt as your own, or you may introduce one that is completely different from those given. Your score will not be affected by the perspective you take on the issue.
Five scores are reported for the writing section: a single subject-level writing score reported on a scale of 2–12 and four domain scores that are based on an analytic scoring rubric. The subject score is the rounded average of the four domain scores. The four writing domains are:
Ideas and Analysis
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to generate productive ideas and engage critically with multiple perspectives on the given issue. Competent writers understand the issue they are invited to address, the purpose for writing, and the audience. They generate ideas that are relevant to the situation.
Development and Support
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to discuss ideas, offer rationale, and bolster an argument. Competent writers explain and explore their ideas, discuss implications, and illustrate through examples. They help the reader understand their thinking about the issue.
Organization
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to organize ideas with clarity and purpose. Organizational choices are integral to effective writing. Competent writers arrange their essay in a way that clearly shows the relationship between ideas, and they guide the reader through their discussion.

Language Use and Conventions
Scores in this domain reflect the ability to use written language to convey arguments with clarity. Competent writers make use of the conventions of grammar, syntax, word usage, and mechanics. They are also aware of their audience and adjust the style and tone of their writing to communicate effectively.
Tips for Taking the Writing Section
9Pace yourself.
Budget your time based on your experience in taking essay tests in school or when you have done writing within a time limit. It is unlikely that you will have time to draft, revise, and recopy your essay.
9Plan.
Before writing, carefully read and consider all prompt material. Be sure you understand the issue, the different perspectives on the issue, and your essay task.
Planning questions are included with the prompt that will help you analyze the different perspectives and develop your own. Use these questions to think critically about the prompt and generate an effective response. How would you best organize and support your ideas in a written argument. Spend time structuring or outlining your response.
Note: The planning questions are optional and are not scored.
9Write.
Establish the focus of your essay by making clear your argument and its main ideas.
y Explain and illustrate your ideas with sound reasoning
and meaningful examples.

y Discuss the significance of your ideas: what are the implications of what you have to say, and why is your
argument important to consider?

As you write, ask yourself if your logic is clear, if you have supported your claims, and if you have chosen precise words to communicate your ideas.
9Review your essay.
Try to make your essay as polished as you can. Take a few minutes before time is called to read over your essay and correct any mistakes.
If you take the ACT on paper, be sure to write your essay legibly. If you find words that are hard to read, recopy them. Make corrections and revisions neatly, between the lines.
Do not write in the margins, if applicable.
9Practice.
There are many ways to prepare for the writing section. Read newspapers and magazines, watch/listen to news analyses online, on TV, or on radio, or participate in discussions and debates, thinking carefully about other perspectives in relation to your own.
One good way to prepare for the writing section is to practice writing with different purposes for different audiences. The writing you do in your classes will help you, as will writing a personal journal, stories, essays, editorials, or other writing you do on your own.
It is also a good idea to practice writing within a time limit. Taking the practice writing test will give you a sense of how much additional practice you may need. You might want  to take the practice writing section even if you do not plan to take the ACT with writing. It will help you build skills that are important in college-level learning and the world of work.

Taking the Practice Tests

It is a good idea to take the practice tests under conditions as similar as possible to those you will experience on test day. The following tips will help you:
y If taking the ACT (no writing), the four multiple-choice
tests require 2 hours and 55 minutes to complete. Take
them in order, in one sitting, with a 10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2 and 3.
y You will need only sharpened, soft lead No. 2 pencils and
good erasers. Remove all other items from your desk.
You will not be allowed to use unapproved scratch paper, but you can use the test booklet to make notes.
y If you plan to use a permitted calculator on the
mathematics test, use the same one you will use on test
day.
y Use a digital timer or clock to time yourself on each practice test. Set your timer for five minutes less than
the time allowed for each test so you can get used to the verbal announcement of five minutes remaining.
y Give yourself only the time allowed for each test.
y Detach and use the sample answer document on pages
55–56.

y Read the test directions on the first page of each multiple-choice test. These are the same directions that
will appear in your test booklet on test day.
y Start your timer and begin with Test 1. Continue through Test 4, taking a 10- to 15-minute break between Tests 2
and 3. Use the timing table on page 1 to time each section of the test.
y Score your multiple-choice tests using the information
beginning on page 63.
y If you plan to take the ACT with writing, read the directions on the first page of the practice ACT writing
test (page 52). These are the same directions that will appear in your test booklet on test day. Start your timer (set for 40 minutes), then read the prompt on page
After you understand what the prompt is asking you to do, plan your essay and then write or print it on
lined paper. On test day, if you test on paper, your answer document will have lined pages on which you will write your essay. Score your essay using the information on pages 68–69.

Practice Multiple-Choice Sections
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Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics, reading, and science. These tests measure skills and abilities highly related to high school course work and success in college. Calculators may be used on the mathematics test only.
The questions in Tests 1–4 are numbered, and the suggested answers for each question are lettered. On the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, frst decide which answer is best. Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval in that row lettered the same as your answer. Finally, fll in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make your marks heavy and black. Do not use ink or a mechanical pencil.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change your mind about an answer, erase your frst mark thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals with the same number as the question.

Only responses marked on your answer document will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only on the number of questions you answer correctly during the time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized for guessing. It is to your advantage to answer every question even if you must guess.
You may work on each test only when the testing staff tells you to do so. If you fnish a test before time is called for that test, you should use the time remaining to reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that test. You may not look back to a test on which time has already been called, and you may not go ahead to another test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called at the end of each test. You may not for any reason fll in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test. To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
For Test 5, follow the directions on the frst page of that test.
Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

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1	1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the ﬁve passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will ﬁnd alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will ﬁnd in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.

You will also ﬁnd questions about a section of the pas- sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identiﬁed by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider best and ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your answer document. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative.

PASSAGE I

The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most logical order. Each paragraph is num- bered in brackets, and question 14 will ask you to choose where Paragraph 3 should most logically be placed.

Bar Codes: A Linear History

[1]
In 1948, graduate students, Norman Woodland

1
and Bernard Silver, took on a problem that had troubled

1
retailers for years: how to keep track of store inventories.
Inspired by the dots and dashes of Morse code, however,

2
Woodland and Silver created a system of lines that could encode data. Called a symbology, the pattern created by the spacing and widths of the lines encodes information by representing different characters.

A.   NO CHANGE
students, Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver
students Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver
students Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver,

F.	NO CHANGE
in other words,
consequently,
J.	DELETE the underlined portion.

1	1
[2]
The first bar code was composed of four white

lines set at specific distances from each other on a black

3

background. The first line was always present. $ Depending on the presence or absence of the remaining three lines, up to seven different arrangements were

susceptible and, therefore, seven different encodings.

5

Today, twenty-nine white lines making more than half

6
a billion encodings possible.
[3]
To create a bar code scanner, Woodland and
Silver adapted technology from an optical movie sound system. Their prototype scanner used a 500-watt bulb, a photomultiplier tube (a device that detects light), and an oscilloscope (a device that translates electronic signals into readable information). Although successful, the concoction

7

was both large and costly. For example, progress stalled

8
until the 1970s, when laser technology (both more compact and less expensive) became available.
[4]
In today’s scanners, a laser sends light back and forth across a bar code. While the black lines absorb the light, the white lines reflect it back at a fixed mirror inside the

9
scanner. In this way, the scanner reads the symbology and decodes the information.

A.   NO CHANGE
distances so that each was separated, one from the
locations, each one set apart from the
lengths of distance from each

The writer is considering deleting the preceding sen- tence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
Kept, because it begins the description that is com- pleted in the sentence that follows.
Kept, because it gives a clear image of what the first bar code looked like.
Deleted, because it provides an extra detail that is not relevant to the subject of the paragraph.
J.	Deleted, because it contradicts a point made later in the paragraph.
A.   NO CHANGE
responsible
possible
capable
F.	NO CHANGE
which make
to make
J.	make

A.   NO CHANGE
contraption
substance
stuff
F.	NO CHANGE
As a result,
However,
J.	Even so,

A.   NO CHANGE
them
ones
one

1	1
[5]

* Today,

being that there are one- and

11
two-dimensional bar codes using numeric and alphanumeric symbologies. Bar codes
are used not only for a pack of gum or an airline ticket, but also for research. In one study, for
instance, tiny bar codes were placed on bees tracking

12
their activities. Shaping the way we gather, track, and

share information, we have almost certainly exceeded

13
even Woodland and Silver’s expectations.

13

Which of the following true statements, if added here, would most effectively lead into the new subject of the paragraph?
In the 1940s, Woodland and Silver were graduate students at the Drexel Institute of Technology in Philadelphia.
Woodland and Silver were granted a patent for their bar code on October 7, 1952.
Bar code equipment has been available for retail use since 1970.
J.	Bar codes themselves have advanced as well.
A.   NO CHANGE
there are
where
DELETE the underlined portion.

F.	NO CHANGE
had been placed on bees trying to track
placed on bees, which would track
J.	were placed on bees to track
A.   NO CHANGE
exceeding  Woodland  and  Silver’s  expectations about bar codes has almost certainly been done.
bar codes have almost certainly exceeded even Woodland and Silver’s expectations.
it is almost certain that we have exceeded even Woodland and Silver’s expectations.

Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.

For the sake of the logic and coherence of the essay, Paragraph 3 should be placed:
where it is now.
before Paragraph 1.
after Paragraph 1.
J.	after Paragraph 5.

Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to describe how a specific technological advancement changed business practices. Would this essay accom- plish that purpose?
Yes, because it offers an overview of current bar code technology and indicates the variety of ways in which bar codes are used by specific businesses.
Yes, because it explains how bar codes and scan- ners made it easier for stores to keep track of their inventories.
No, because it focuses primarily on the develop- ment of bar codes and only briefly mentions how businesses have implemented the use of bar codes.
No, because it focuses on why businesses needed new technology but does not explain how bar codes were able to serve that need.

1	1
PASSAGE II

Glowing on an Adventure

As I pulled my camera out of my backpack, I felt a tap on my arm.
“No photographs,” whispered the woman next to
me, pointing up to the cave ceiling. “The flash will

16

make them stop glowing,” she said, whispering.

17
She was referring to the thousands of glowworms that clung to the limestone ceiling and, with their radiant
bodies, flooded the cave in aquamarine light. While

18

I was traveling on canoe on a group tour through

19
the renowned Glowworm Grotto of New Zealand’s Waitomo Caves. Were it not for the twinkling
light of these Arachnocampa luminosa, a species unique to New Zealand and abundant in these caves, this meandering subterranean passageway would
feel as though it were downright ensconced in shadows.

20
I sheepishly tucked the camera away and focused again on the glowworms. Collectively, they resembled the cosmos, a sea of stars in a clear night sky. Beautiful—yet what made them glow?
“Bioluminescence,” the woman said, peculiarly sensing my curiosity. 5 A badge

was pinned to her shirt indicated she was a

22
biochemist, here, I guessed, to research the organism.

F.	NO CHANGE
me, and then pointing
me and she pointed
J.	me, she pointed
A.   NO CHANGE
glowing,” she said as she pointed up to the ceiling.
glowing,” she said in a hushed, whispering voice.
glowing.”

F.	NO CHANGE
Although
Since
J.	DELETE the underlined portion.
A.   NO CHANGE
with
by
in

F.	NO CHANGE
end up pretty hard to see.
have not a lot of light.
J.	be utterly dark.

At this point, the writer wants to emphasize the idea that the narrator found the woman’s comment peculiar. Which of the following best accomplishes that goal?
I figured she had been to the caves before.
Surprised, I hesitantly turned toward her.
She had a notepad in her hand.
I happened to agree.
F.	NO CHANGE
had been
it was
J.	DELETE the underlined portion.

1	1
She explained that to attract prey, glowworms (not really worms at all, but the larval stage of a fungus

gnat) emit light through their translucent skin; via a

23
cellular chemical reaction. The cells produce luciferin, a chemical pigment that reacts with oxygen to produce
light that shines through the organism’s tail-end intestine.
From its mouth, she showed me,
all glowworms dangle shimmering silken

24
threads glossed in beads of mucus. Cave-dwelling

insects are trapped in these threads, then reeled in

25
like fish on a line, and finally lured by the light.

25
The light responds to environmental factors. The

sound of splashing water, however, might signal

26

that prey is nearby, causing them to

27

brighten. <

A.   NO CHANGE
skin, and via
skin. Via
skin via

F.	NO CHANGE
all of the glowworms are dangling
each of the glowworms dangle
J.	each glowworm dangles
A.   NO CHANGE
lured by the light, then trapped in these threads, and finally reeled in like fish on a line.
reeled in like fish on a line, then trapped in these threads, and finally lured by the light.
trapped in these threads, then lured by the light, and finally reeled in like fish on a line.
F.	NO CHANGE
on the other hand,
for example,
J.	above all,
A.   NO CHANGE
the light
these
DELETE the underlined portion.

Which of the following choices, if added here, would best conclude the paragraph and refer back to the con- versation at the beginning of the essay?
Insects are likely attracted to the light because the sky-like appearance of the glowworms fools the insects into believing they are outdoors.
She told me that the cave is usually quiet, with only occasional noises, such as tour boats passing through the water.
A camera flash, she reminded me, may also spell danger, and the glowworms’ light is doused.
J.	The light is also brighter in a hungry larva than in those that have just eaten.

1	1
Our trip neared its end. I spotted

a dragonfly in the cave. I knew its

29

fate, it would be ensnared, just as I had

30
been by the brilliance of these luminescent glowworms.

The writer is considering revising the underlined por- tion to the following:
soaring toward the light.
Should the writer make this revision?
Yes, because the revised phrase more specifically describes the dragonfly’s actions to help support the narrator’s claim that she knew what its fate would be.
Yes, because the revised phrase adds information that explains why the light of the glowworms was suddenly dim.
No, because the original phrase more clearly establishes that the trip is ending and that the nar- rator sees the dragonfly as they exit the cave.
No, because the original phrase builds on the sus- pense established in the narrative regarding the fate of the dragonfly.
F.	NO CHANGE
fate; and
fate:
J.	fate

PASSAGE III

A Rose by the Name Antique

With shears in hand, I clip a thin branch
from the rosebush in my backyard garden. I place this clipping into the basket next to me and crouch under

31

this again. I snip a few more branches and then rise

32
to head to the greenhouse. There, I will deposit these

clippings in rich soil; roots will take hold, buds will sprout,

33
and a new plant will find a home in my garden.
My roses are not your average hybrid-tea roses (those long-stemmed, special occasion roses with well-formed buds). Mine are antique roses, old, or heirloom varieties,

34
that have existed in gardens worldwide for centuries.

A.   NO CHANGE
basket next, to me
basket, next to me
basket next to me,
F.	NO CHANGE
the rosebush
one
J.	it

Which choice most closely maintains the sentence pat- tern the writer establishes after the semicolon?
NO CHANGE
I will see new buds that have been sprouting,
followed by the buds, which have sprouted,
then come the sprouting buds after that,

F.	NO CHANGE
roses, old or heirloom, varieties,
roses old, or heirloom varieties
J.	roses, old or heirloom varieties

1	1

Compared to vibrant hybrid-tea colors, antique rose colors

35

tend to be silenced. Their stems are also shorter, and their

36
buds are a bit droopier. Their fragrance, however, is unmatched. And unlike the hybrid-tea whose long stems
make into a rosebush that is rather scraggly looking,

37

antique rosebushes can be grown in a variety of colors,

38
handsomely landscaping gardens.

The plant thrives best when it is exposed to six hours

39
of direct sunlight daily. The plant can withstand extreme
39

temperatures and survive nearly anywhere. It’s also easier

40

to grow antiques. Cultivating hybrid-teas having involved

41
a process of grafting two species of rose together, but the grafted area remains weak and susceptible to viruses.
Antiques, on the other hand, are less prone to disease because they are grown simply by placing cuttings from
a parent plant into nutrient-rich soil. They require far less

42
pruning, fertilizing, and nurturing than their hybrid-tea

A.   NO CHANGE
vibrant hybrid-tea, colors,
vibrant, hybrid-tea colors
vibrant hybrid-tea colors
F.	NO CHANGE
reduced.
muted.
J.	lower.

A.   NO CHANGE
about
like
for

The writer wants to add a detail here that best com- pletes the contrast to hybrid-tea roses in the first part of the sentence. Which choice best accomplishes that goal?
NO CHANGE
are lush and shapely,
can grow quite large,
J.	tend to be less thorny,

Which choice best introduces the main focus of the paragraph?
NO CHANGE
The varieties of antique roses are numerous, the most popular of which are the silken peach Mutabilis and the crimson Louis Phillippe.
Aside from the rose’s beauty, what gardeners like me most appreciate is that antiques are incredibly durable and low maintenance.
While I am fond of bush varieties, I am also drawn to climbing varieties that can be placed against walls, fences, or trellises.
F.	NO CHANGE
They’re
Their
J.	Its
A.   NO CHANGE
which involves
involves
involving

F.	NO CHANGE
Antiques, requiring
Antiques require
J.	Requiring

1	1
counterparts, antiques can reportedly survive without any

care from human hands, a fact that surprises many.

43
[1] I dig small holes in a pot of soil, place each clipping a half inch deep, and pack down the soil around them. [2] Back in my greenhouse, I strip the clippings
of all leaves and branches. [3] Then I wait: the roots will take hold and, eventually, buds will sprout. L

The writer wants to add a detail here that emphasizes the antique rose’s ability to survive without human care. Which choice best accomplishes that goal?
NO CHANGE
blooming year after year even at abandoned sites.
making them more popular among gardeners.
often blooming between midspring and fall.

Which sequence of sentences makes this paragraph most logical?
NO CHANGE
G.  2, 1, 3
H.  3, 1, 2
J.	1, 3, 2

Question 45 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to describe the process of planting a particular flower. Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
Yes, because the essay discusses the steps involved in growing and maintaining antique rosebushes.
Yes, because the writer explains the specific condi- tions needed to plant antique roses and how long it takes for new buds to sprout.
No, because the essay is more focused on compar- ing the qualities and cultivation of antique and hybrid-tea roses.
No, because while the writer mentions growing antique roses in his garden, the essay is more focused on the history of antiques in gardens worldwide.

PASSAGE IV

Jeremy Frey, Weaving Heritage Into Modern Art

[1]
The winning piece was a basket, it was eighteen

46
inches tall with a curved, vaselike silhouette. [A] It
was made of ash wood finely woven into bold stripes of black and white that ran from its crown to its base. [B]

F.	NO CHANGE
this work of art reached
the object stood
J.	DELETE the underlined portion.

1	1
In the ninety-year history of the Santa Fe Indian

Market—the largest Indian art festival in the nation—the

47
2011 event marked the first time a basket won best of show. The creator of the piece, thirty-three-year-old Passamaquoddy Indian Jeremy Frey from Princeton,
Maine, the basket sold at auction for $16,000.

48
[2]
[C] Frey describes his baskets as “cutting-edge traditional.” [D] He primarily
weaves a classic material, wood from the brown
ash tree, but, unlike most contemporary basketmakers,

49
he harvests, cuts, pounds, dries, and dyes the wood

himself. Then creating highly elaborate versions

50
of the sturdy utility baskets that have been used

by generations of Passamaquoddy fishermen from

51
Maine. He honors tradition, but he highlights artistic design. For example, his baskets feature

complex weaving on areas that are often hidden

52
and therefore typically not embellished. Many traditional baskets have basic, woven lids.

A.   NO CHANGE
Market  the  largest  Indian  art  festival—in  the nation—
Market, the largest Indian art festival, in the nation
Market, the largest Indian art festival in the nation

F.	NO CHANGE
looked on as the
as his
J.	his

A.   NO CHANGE
but, unlike most, contemporary basketmakers
but unlike, most contemporary basketmakers,
but, unlike most contemporary basketmakers
F.	NO CHANGE
Going on to create
Frey creates
J.	Creating

If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the essay would primarily lose:
an indication that Frey honors Passamaquoddy cul- tural heritage by creating baskets that look nearly identical to traditional pieces.
a mention of a physical characteristic of the earli- est baskets used by Passamaquoddy fishermen.
a  detail  that  connects  Frey’s  basketry  work  to long-standing Passamaquoddy traditions.
a point revealing that Frey’s baskets are used by Passamaquoddy fishermen today.

Which choice provides the clearest and most specific information about which parts of Frey’s baskets are being referred to in the sentence and about Frey’s manner of weaving those parts?
NO CHANGE
a remarkable level of detail on certain sections, the
intricately woven interiors and bottoms,
J.	characteristic interiors and bottoms,

1	1

Frey’s porcupine quill lids are often decorated

53

with art inlaid on birch bark; as far as lids go,

54
I wouldn’t say that’s basic. And while braids of

54

grass are customarily woven into ash baskets

55

to make them better, Frey incorporates braided

56
cedar bark to create striking new textures.

[3]
Now that he’s a nationally recognized artist of who

57
has rejuvenated the art of basketry, Frey feels his role is to inspire. He’s on the board of the Maine Indian Basketmakers Alliance, a group that works to help
preserve it by reaching out to young members of Native

58
communities in the state. His other goal is to continue to

stand out. The woven grass bracelets he saw on a recent

59
trip to Hawaii have influenced how he shapes the bases of some of his newer baskets, as he finds yet another way to make traditional Passamaquoddy weaving something spectacularly his own.

Which placement of the underlined portion makes clear that the art that decorates the lid, not the lid itself, is made of porcupine quill?
Where it is now
After the word are
After the word often
After the word with
F.	NO CHANGE
bark,  which  is  not  exactly  formulating  a  lid through a conventional ideology.
bark; this is just part of his really artistic way.
J.	bark.
A.   NO CHANGE
has been
is seen
is

Which choice provides the clearest and most specific reason that grass is woven into ash baskets?
NO CHANGE
for the sake of the objects,
for a useful purpose,
J.	to strengthen them,
A.   NO CHANGE
being whom
whom
who

F.	NO CHANGE
this art
that
J.	DELETE the underlined portion.
A.   NO CHANGE
distinguish himself from other weavers so as a weaver he is set apart from them.
remain to be someone who gets noticed.

Question 60 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

keep on being fully distinct.

The writer is considering adding the following sen- tence to the essay:
The black stripes were woven flat, sharply set- ting off the white stripes, which were woven to form raised columns of perfectly even points that seemed to cascade down the piece.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most logically be placed at:
Point A in Paragraph 1.
Point B in Paragraph 1.
Point C in Paragraph 2.
J.	Point D in Paragraph 2.

1	1
PASSAGE V

The Flow of Time
Nine hundred years ago, Emperor Zhezong of China,

61
ordered the design and construction of a clock

built to keep time more accurately than other clocks.

62

This would be no simple timepiece and because

63

Chinese dynasties continued to astrology, they relied

64
on complicated clocks that not only kept time but also helped track stars, planets, the sun, and the moon. An
eminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song lead

65
Zhezong’s ambitious project.

Using his expertise in calendrical science,

66

Su Song created a spectacular timepiece housed within

67
an ornate forty-foot-tall tower. At the tower’s top sat an

armillary sphere, or a nest of metal rings representing

68
celestial reference points such as the horizon and the sun’s path—that rotated in sync with the earth, enabling precise astronomical observations. Inside the tower, a sphere depicting the sky revolved to display the stars that were overhead.

A.   NO CHANGE
ago, Emperor Zhezong, of China
ago, Emperor Zhezong of China
ago Emperor Zhezong of China,
F.	NO CHANGE
to keep time more accurately than clocks that had previously come before it.
more accurate at keeping time correctly than any other clock of the time.
J.	more accurate than any other.
A.   NO CHANGE
timepiece. Because
timepiece, because
timepiece because
F.	NO CHANGE
adhered
linked
J.	fixed

A.   NO CHANGE
imminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song lead
imminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song led
eminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song led

Given that all the choices are accurate, which one best indicates that Su Song relied on engineering achieve- ments from earlier times?
NO CHANGE
Building on centuries of Chinese clock-making knowledge,
While  authoring  his  treatise  on  astronomical clockwork,
J.	After first crafting a working small-scale wooden model,
A.   NO CHANGE
secured between
encased around
nestled among
F.	NO CHANGE
sphere—
sphere:
J.	sphere,

1	1

Besides, below the star sphere, the tower’s open

69
sides exposed a detailed model of a five-story pagoda. Automated figurines would appear in the pagoda’s
doorways and ring bells to announce hours, sunsets,

70
seasons, and other chronological events.

The clock’s inner workings were equally remarkable.

71
Hidden in the tower, a waterwheel eleven feet in diameter

powered the entire clock. Therefore, water would pour at

72
a constant rate into one of the wheel’s thirty-six buckets. When the bucket was full, the water’s weight pulled it down, rotating the waterwheel. Then a stop mechanism halted the wheel and positioned the next bucket for filling.
Chinese clockmakers had long used waterwheels, but

73
Su Song’s stop mechanism, which regulated the inertia of the waterwheel, represented significant innovation.
Unfortunately, after Su Song’s clock ran for thirty years, invaders stole it. Later the clock
vanished altogether. It would be a few hundred years
until with the refinement of mechanical clocks in Europe

74

other clocks approached the complexity of Su Song’s

75
masterpiece.

A.   NO CHANGE
Sooner or later,
Lastly,
Thus,

Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would NOT be acceptable?
bells, which served to announce
bells, they announced
bells that announced
J.	bells, announcing
A.   NO CHANGE
reveals themselves as being
was shown to be
has proved
F.	NO CHANGE
In other words, water
For example, water
J.	Water

A.   NO CHANGE
nevertheless,
regardless,
DELETE the underlined portion.

F.	NO CHANGE
until—with the refinement of mechanical clocks in Europe—
until with the refinement (of mechanical clocks in Europe)
J.	until, with the refinement, of mechanical clocks in Europe
A.   NO CHANGE
eventually became able to draw anywhere near to the complexity
grew to attain such a high degree as that
could even fathom coming within reach

END OF TEST 1 STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

2	2
MATHEMATICS TEST
60 Minutes—60 Questions

DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct	but some of the problems may best be done without answer, and then ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your	using a calculator.
answer document.	Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should Do not linger over problems that take too much time.	be assumed.
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in	1. Illustrative ﬁgures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale. the time you have left for this test.	2. Geometric ﬁgures lie in a plane.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You	3. The word line indicates a straight line.
may use your calculator for any problems you choose,	4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.

1. The numbers 1 through 15 were each written on individual pieces of paper, 1 number per piece. Then the 15 pieces of paper were put in a jar. One piece of paper will be drawn from the jar at random. What is the probability of drawing a piece of paper with a number less than 9 written on it?

The expression (4c − 3d)(3c + d) is equivalent to:
A. 12c2 − 13cd − 3d2 B. 12c2 − 13cd + 3d2 C. 12c2 −  5cd − 3d2 D.   12c2 −   5cd + 3d2

A.	_1_ 9

1_ 15

6_ 15

E.   12c2 −   3d2

Of  the  180 students  in  a  college  course,

_1_ 4

of  the

D.    7_ 15

8_ 15

2.  Which of the following expressions is equivalent to
−4x3 − 12x3 + 9x2 ?
x8
−7x8
H.   −8x3 + 9x2 J. −16x3 + 9x2 K.  −16x6 + 9x2

3. When x = 2, 10 + 3_12 ÷ (3x)+ =  ?
12
16
26
34
E.   104

4. ⎪6 − 4⎪ − ⎪3 − 8⎪ = ?
−7
−3
3
7
21

students earned an A for the course, _1_  of the students
3
earned a B for the course, and the rest of the students earned a C for the course. How many of the students earned a C for the course?
75
90
H.  105
J.    120
K.  135

The number of fish, f, in Skipper’s Pond at the beginning of each year can be modeled by the equation f (x) = 3(2x ), where x represents the number of years after the beginning of the year 2000. For example, x = 0 represents the beginning of the year 2000, x = 1 represents the beginning of the year 2001, and so forth. According to the model, how many fish were in Skipper’s Pond at the beginning of the year 2006 ?
A.          96
B.        192
C.        384
D.     1,458
E.   46,656

2	2

Manish drove from Chicago to Baton Rouge. At 8:00 a.m., he was 510 km from Baton Rouge. At 1:00 p.m., he was 105 km from Baton Rouge. Which of the following values is closest to Manish’s average speed, in kilometers per hour, from 8:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. ?
58
68

12. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, the point (2,1) is
the midpoint of CD. Point C has coordinates (6,8). What are the coordinates of point D ?

2

F.	1−2,− _7_ 2

2

G.  (−2, −6)

81
J.	94

H. 1 4,

_9_ 2

K.  102

In the figure shown below, E and G lie on AC , D and F lie on AB , DE and FG are parallel to BC , and the given lengths are in feet. What is the length of AC , in feet?

16

8

E

D

7

G

F

6

B

A

13
26
29	C
42
48

Katerina  runs  15 miles  in  2 _1_  hours.  What  is  the
2
average number of minutes it takes her to run 1 mile?

6

10
H.  12 _1_
2
J.	16 _2_
3
K.  17 _1_
2

A bag contains 8 red marbles, 9 yellow marbles, and 7 green marbles. How many additional red marbles must be added to the 24 marbles already in the bag so that the probability of randomly drawing a red marble is _3_ ?
5

J.    ( 10, 10)
K.  ( 10, 15)

At his job, the first 40 hours of each week that Thomas works is regular time, and any additional time that he works is overtime. Thomas gets paid $15 per hour during regular time. During overtime Thomas gets paid
1.5 times as much as he gets paid during regular time. Thomas works 46 hours in 1 week and gets $117 in deductions taken out of his pay for this week. After the deductions are taken out, how much of Thomas’s pay for this week remains?
A.   $492
B.   $573
C.   $609
D.   $618
E.   $735

At Sweet Stuff Fresh Produce the price of a bag of grapes depends on the total number of bags purchased at 1 time, as shown in the table below. In 2 trips to Sweet Stuff this week, Janelle purchased 3 bags of grapes on Monday and 4 bags of grapes on Wednesday. How much money would Janelle have saved if she had instead purchased 7 bags of grapes in 1 trip on Monday?

Number of bags	Price per bag	
1−3	$3.00	
4−6	$2.80	
7−9	$2.60	
10 or more	$2.50	
F. $0.20 G. $1.00 H. $1.40 J. $2.00 K.  $2.50

15. What is 3% of 4.14 × 104 ?

A.   11	A.	1,242	
B.   16	B.	1,380	
C.   20	C.	12,420	
D.   24	D.	13,800	
E.   32	E.	124,200	

2	2
What value of x satisfies the equation	20. For  a  given  set  of  data,  the  standard  score,  z,

−3(4x − 5) = 2(1 − 5x) ?

corresponding to the raw score, x, is given by z =

x −μ , σ

F.	− 17
2
G.  − 17_

where μ is the mean of the set and σ is the standard deviation. If, for a set of scores, μ = 78 and σ = 6,

22	which   of   the   following   is   the   raw   score,   x,
H.	−1	corresponding to z = 2 ?

J.	3_

F.	90

17	G.  84
H.  80

K.	13_

J.	76

2	K.  66

21. In the figure below, A, B, C, and D lie on the circle

A

D

60°O

B

C

In right triangle nABC shown below, the given lengths	centered at O. are in millimeters. What is sin A ?

A.   4√•2	A
9

B.	4√•2_ 7
C.	7√•2_

4√�2	9

8
D.	_7_

B	7	C

Which of the following does NOT appear in the figure?

9	A.   Acute triangle

E.	_9_
7

Equilateral triangle
Isosceles triangle
Right triangle
Scalene triangle

1 27 2 3

− _2_
_	= ?	22. What  is  the  slope  of  a  line,  in  the  standard  (
64	coordinate plane, that is parallel to x + 5y = 9 ?

x,y)

F.	− 9_
16	F.	−5

1

G.  − 9_
32	G.  − 5

1

H.	9_
32	H.	5

9

J.	16_
9	J.	5
K.	32_
9	K.	9
Loto begins at his back door and walks 8 yards east,
6 yards north, 12 yards east, and 5 yards north to the	x

barn door. About how many yards less would he walk	23. Given y =

x − 1

and x > 1, which of the following is a

if he could walk directly from the back door to the	possible value of y ? barn door?

A.	8	A.	−1.9	
B.	19	B.	−0.9	
C.	23	C.	0.0	
D.	26	D.	0.9	
E.	31	E.	1.9	

2	2

The set of all positive integers that are divisible by both 15 and 35 is infinite. What is the least positive integer in this set?
5
50
H.  105
J.	210
K.  525

In nABC shown below, the measure of ∠A is 58°, and
AB ≅ AC . What is the measure of ∠C ?

58°

?

B

A

C
A.   32°
B.   42°
C.   58°
D.   61°
E.   62°

About 1.48 × 108 square kilometers of Earth’s surface is land; the rest, about 3.63 × 108 square kilometers, is water. If a returning space capsule lands at a random point on Earth’s surface, which of the following is the best estimate of the probability that the space capsule will land in water?
F.	80%
G.  71%
H.  65%
J.	41%
K.  29%

	Mean	Median	Mode	
A.	equal	greater	greater	
B.	greater	greater	greater	
C.	greater	greater	equal	
D.	greater	equal	greater	
E.	greater	equal	equal	

On the first 7 statistics tests of the semester, Jamal scored 61, 76, 79, 80, 80, 84, and 91. The mean, median, and mode of his scores were 79, 80, and 80, respectively. On the 8th statistics test, Jamal scored 90. How do the mean, median, and mode of all 8 of his scores compare to the mean, median, and mode of his first 7 scores?

The solid rectangular prism shown below was built by alternating congruent black cubes and white cubes such that  2 cubes  of  the  same  color  have  at  most 1 edge touching. What is the total number of white cubes that were used to build the prism?

F.	45
G.  102
H.  105
J.	140
K.  210

One side of square ABCD has a length of 12 meters. A certain rectangle whose area is equal to the area of ABCD has a width of 8 meters. What is the length, in meters, of the rectangle?
12
16
18
20
24

The average of a list of 4 numbers is 92.0. A new list of 4 numbers has the same first 3 numbers as the original list, but the fourth number in the original list is 40, and the fourth number in the new list is 48. What is the average of this new list of numbers?
F.	81.0
G.  92.0
H.  94.0
J.	94.4
K.  96.6

The vector i represents 1 mile per hour east, and the vector j represents 1 mile per hour north. Maria is jogging south at 12 miles per hour. One of the following vectors represents Maria’s velocity, in miles per hour. Which one?
−12i
−12j
12i
12j
E.	12i + 12j

2	2

Use the following information to answer questions 35–38.

Four identical glasses are shown below. One glass is

empty, and the other 3 glasses are

1_  full,

1_  full, and

4	2
_4_   full  of  water,  respectively.  If  the  water  were
5
redistributed   equally   among   the   4 glasses,   what fractional part of each glass would be filled?

	Positive Yq test	Negative Yq test	
Positive Sam77 test	590	10	
Negative Sam77 test	25	375	

Many humans carry the gene Yq77. The Yq test determines, with 100% accuracy, whether a human carries Yq77. If a Yq test result is positive, the human carries the Yq77 gene. If a Yq test result is negative, the human does NOT carry Yq77. Sam designed a less expensive test for Yq77 called the Sam77 test. It produces some incorrect results. To determine the accuracy of the Sam77 test, both tests were administered to 1,000 volunteers. The results from this administration are summarized in the table below.

F.		2_ 11
G.    8_ 11

H.		3_ 22
J.	31_ 60
K.   31_ 80

Aurelio is purchasing carpet tiles to cover an area of his living room floor that is 8 _1_  feet wide by 10 feet
3
long. Each carpet tile is a square 20 inches wide by 20 inches long. What is the minimum number of carpet tiles that Aurelio must purchase to cover this area of his living room floor?
5
11
21
30
84

In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, a circle with its center at (8,5) and a radius of 9 coordinate units has which of the following equations?

It cost $2,500 to administer each Yq test and $50 to administer each Sam77 test. What was the total cost to administer both tests to all the volunteers?
A. $1,537,500 B. $1,556,750 C. $1,568,250 D. $2,500,000 E.   $2,550,000

What percent of the volunteers actually carry Yq77 ?
F.    57.5%
G.  60.0%
H.  60.5%
J.    61.5%
K.  62.5%

For how many volunteers did the Sam77 test give an incorrect result?
10
25
35
D.   385
E.   400

One of the volunteers whose Sam77 test result was positive will be chosen at random. To the nearest 0.001, what is the probability the chosen volunteer does NOT possess Yq77 ?
F.    0.017

F.    (x − 8)2 + ( y − 5)2 = 81
G. (x − 8)2 + ( y − 5)2 = 9 H. (x + 8)2 + ( y + 5)2 = 81 J. (x + 8)2 + ( y + 5)2 =  9 K.  (x + 5)2 + ( y + 8)2 = 81

G.  0.026
H.  0.035
J.	0.041
K.  0.063

2	2

−1

Given matrices X = 3−1 04 and Y = 3−24, which of the	44. A barrel contains 25 liters of a solvent mixture that is
40% solvent and 60% water. Lee will add pure solvent
following matrices is XY ?	to the barrel, without removing any of the mixture
currently in the barrel, so that the new mixture will
3−44	contain 50% solvent and 50% water. How many liters
3−34	of  pure  solvent  should  Lee  add  to  create  this  new

C.   3−24
D.   3  24

mixture?
F.	2.5
G.	5

E.   3  34	H.  10
J.	12.5
K.  15

Regardless of how the graph is oriented in the standard (x,y)  coordinate  plane,  NO  graph  in  one  of  the

For all x ≠ ±y,

    x 	

+     y     = ?

following categories has a vertical line of symmetry.	x + y	x − y

Which one?

1

Line	x − y
Square	x + y
Pentagon	B.	x − y
Parallelogram

Scalene triangle	C.

x + y

2x

The equation 24x2 + 2x = 15 has 2 solutions. What is

D.   x2 + y2

2	2

the greater of the 2 solutions?

E.    x  + y 	 x2 − y2

A.	_3_ 4
B.	_4_

46. Mary, James, and Carlos sold

_1_ -page advertisements
4

3
C.	_5_

for the school yearbook. Mary sold twice as many as
Carlos did, and James sold 3 times as many as Mary

6	did. What fraction of these advertisements did Carlos

D.	_7_ 6
E.	11_

sell?
F.	1_

15	9

Which  of  the  following  expressions  is  equal  to

G.   _1_ 7
_1_

(sin 60°)(cos 30°) + (cos 60°)(sin 30°) ?	H.   6
F.	cos(60° − 30°)	J.	1
5

G.   cos(60° + 30°)	K.
H.   sin(60° − 30°)

_1_ 3

47. In a window display at a flower shop, there are 3 spots
J.	sin(60° + 30°)	for  1 plant  each.  To  fill  these  3 spots,  Emily  has

2

K. sin160° + 30° 2

6 plants to select from, each of a different type. Selecting from the 6 plants, Emily can make how many possible display arrangements with 1 plant in each spot?

What is the area, in square units, of a circle that has a	(Note: The positions of the unselected plants do not circumference 12π units long?	matter.)

A.	6π	A.	3	
B.	12π	B.	6	
C.	24π	C.	15	
D.	36π	D.	120	
E.	144π	E.	216	

2	2

Use the following information to answer questions 48–50.

51. Twelve jurors are needed for an upcoming trial. The diagram below illustrates a part of the process of jury selection. The 12 jurors will be selected from a jury

The quadratic function f and nMPQ are graphed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below. Points M(2a, 5b), N(4a, 9b), and P(6a, 5b) are on f. Point Q(4a, 0) is NOT on f.

pool of about 60 people. The court records show a trend that only 40% of the people who are summoned
for jury duty actually appear and that of the people

y	N	f

who  appear,

_1_
3

are  excused.  If  this  same  trend

8b 6b
M	P
4b
2b
Q
O	2a	4a	6a	8a	x

In terms of a and b, what is the area, in square coordinate units, of nMPQ ?
8ab
10ab
12ab
15ab
20ab

Point M will remain fixed, and point Q will move to the right along the x-axis. As Q continues to move to the right, which of the following statements describes what will happen to the slope of MQ ?
It will decrease and eventually be negative.
It will decrease but never be negative.
It will stay the same.
It will increase but never be positive.
It will increase and eventually be positive.

One of the following values is equal to f (5a). Which one?
3a
5a
5b

continues, how many people should be summoned to
have as close as possible to 60 people in the jury pool?
Summoned

45	Appeared	Did not appear
90
C.   150
D.   225
800	Excused	Jury pool

What is the 275th d igit after the decimal point in the repeating decimal 0.6295 ?
0
2
5
6
9

Given that f (x) = x2 − 4 and g(x) = x + 3, what are all the values of x for which f _g(x)+ = 0 ?
−5 and −1
B.   −3, −2, and 2
−1 and 1
1 and 5
E.   −√•5 and √•5

Given that p is a positive number, n is a negative number, and ⎪p⎪ > ⎪n⎪, which of the following expressions has the greatest value?

p − n

F.	⎪  p   ⎪

⎪	⎪

G.	p − n n

8a
8b

 p + n p − n

H. ⎪	⎪

J.	⎪	⎪

 p + n p

K. ⎪	⎪

 p + n n

2	2

If i = √•−•1 , then

i + i2 + i3

= ?	58. A  cosine  function  is  shown  in  the  standard  (x,y)

−3
−1

i3 + i4 + i5	coordinate plane below.

y

1
O

π
2

x

C.	_1_ 2
1
3

In one of the following graphs in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the solution set to the system of inequalities below is shown shaded. Which one?
5 x + 2y ≤ 6

One   of   the   following   equations   represents   this function. Which one?

1_x_ 2

3x2 > 12 − 3y2	F.	y = 2 cos  3

y	J.

O	x

y = 2 cos(3x)

y

O

3

y = 3 cos1_x_ 2

2

x	J.	y = 3 cos1_x_ 2
K.  y = 3 cos(2x)

y	K.

y	59. The figure below shows a flying kite. At a certain moment, the kite string forms an angle of elevation of 75° from point A on the ground. At the same moment, the angle of elevation of the kite at point B, 240 ft from A on level ground, is 45°. What is the length, in feet, of

O	x	O

x	the string?
A.	60√•3
B.	80√•6	string
C.   144

kite

y

D.   180	75°	45°
E.   240	A	240	B

O	x	60. If a publisher charges $15 for the first copy of a book that is ordered and $12 for each additional copy, which of the following expressions represents the cost of
y books?
F.	12y +  3
G.  12y + 15
Let a, b, c, and d be real numbers. Given that ac = 1,	H.  15y −  3

b + c

is undefined, and abc = d, which of the following

J.	15y +  3

d	K.  15y + 12
must be true?
a = 0 or c = 0
a = 1 and c = 1
a = −c	END OF TEST 2
b = 0
b + c = 0	STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT-2176CPRE	31

3	3
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test. Each passage is accompanied by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your answer document. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

Passage I

LITERARY NARRATIVE: Passage A is adapted from the memoir The Piano Shop on the Left Bank by Thad Carhart (©2001 by T.E. Carhart). Passage B is adapted from the article “Me and My Violin” by Arnold Steinhardt (©2014 by Listen: Life with Classical Music).

Passage A by Thad Carhart

Even when Luc was busy and could not talk he always made me welcome and allowed me to wander around the inner sanctum of the back room on my own. When things were quieter, he seemed glad of the com-
5 pany and would tell me about the pianos that had just arrived. Our talks made real for me one of his funda- mental beliefs, that each and every piano had com- pletely individual characteristics, even if of the same manufacturer and age.

Luc, but he was deeply respectful of serious musicians who used and depended upon their instrument for their livelihood.
Passage B by Arnold Steinhardt

40		Marc Lifschey, one of the greatest oboists of his era, told me that after retiring as a performer and teacher, he sold his oboe. On the face of it, giving up an instrument you no longer use seems perfectly reason- able, but nevertheless I was taken aback. Marc was not
45 merely an excellent oboist; he was a great artist. Still, Marc didn’t do it alone. He and his oboe did it together. Even in retirement, wouldn’t Marc have some sort of lasting relationship with his oboe that transcended per- forming on it? Wouldn’t he want to keep it if for no
50 other reason than as a reminder of the magnificent music the two of them had made together?

10	Sometimes he knew all the details, had even met

the

Joseph Roisman, the distinguished first violinist of

the owners and talked about their instrument with them and knew intimately how they had treated it. Other times he knew nothing beyond what he could see, feel, or hear. Most often pianos came to him from auctions
15 and charity sales, their history anonymous. But even then, like an expert in artifacts, he could deduce a great deal: whether a piano had been played much or little, whether it had been in an environment with the proper level of humidity (one of his cardinal rules), whether
20 there had been children in the household, even whether it had recently been transported by ship. (“The worst thing you can possibly do to a piano,” he told me more than once.) At these moments he was part detective, part archaeologist, part social critic.

Budapest String Quartet, seemed to be content to give up his beloved Lorenzo Storioni when he agreed to
55 sell it to me after the Quartet retired. But when I finally met with him, he had second thoughts. “Steinhardt,” he said to me plaintively, “I’ll sell the violin to you some day, but for now I’m enjoying playing chamber music with my friends every Friday night.” And that is exactly
60  what he did until his death a year or two later.

Lifschey and Roisman dealt with retirement in dif- ferent ways, but their stories made me wonder about not only what I’ll do with my violin if and when I retire, but also about the very nature of a musician’s day-to-
65  day, year-to-year relationship with his instrument.

25		His attitude about how people treated their pianos seemed to mirror his philosophy of life. While regret-

and my

I began playing violin when I was six years old, now I’m seventy-six. It has been an integral part of

ting the depredations worked by children on keyboards
and strings, he regarded them as tolerable because the piano was at least used and, as he put it, “au sein de la
30 famille” (“at the heart of the family”). It was more than just any piece of furniture, but it was that, too, and if drinks were spilled and stains bit into shiny finishes, it was the price one paid for initiating the young to a joy that should stem from familiarity rather than reverence.

35		Those who preserved their piano as an altar upon which the art of music was to be worshipped irritated

life for the last seven decades. Does that make the
violin my very close friend? Well, yes. Sometimes. The
70 violin obviously can’t speak with words, but when I ask something of it, the instrument can respond with an astonishing range of substance and emotion. This is friendship on a most exalted level.
There  are  other  moments,  however,  when  the
75 violin stubbornly refuses to do my bidding—when it only reluctantly plays in tune, or makes the sound I want, or delivers the music’s essence for which I strive. Then I have to cajole, bargain or adjust to its every

3	3

whim. Some friend; more like an adversary, you might
80  say.

Or is the violin my partner? A woman once went backstage to congratulate the great violinist Jascha Heifetz after a concert. “What a wonderful sound your violin has, Mr. Heifetz!” she exclaimed. Heifetz leaned
85 over his violin that lay in its open case, listened intently for a moment, and said, “Funny, I don’t hear a thing.” My violin also lies mute in its case without me—but, on the other hand, I stand mute on the concert stage with- out it.

In Passage A, the parenthetical information in line 19 and lines 21–23 mainly serves to:
specify how Luc identified certain aspects of a piano’s history.
portray Luc as overly judgmental about piano transportation.
describe the types of rules that visitors to Luc’s shop were required to follow.
indicate some of Luc’s firm beliefs about piano care.

Based on the assertion in Passage A that Luc’s “atti- tude about how people treated their pianos seemed to mirror his philosophy of life” (lines 25–26), which of the following statements would most nearly describe Luc’s philosophy of life?
It’s better to live a full and imperfect life than not participate because something might go wrong.
Life is a fragile gift that must be cherished and kept safe at all times.
Living well is like playing the piano well; it requires dedication and practice.
J. It’s important not to take life’s opportunities for granted because they may not come a second time.

As it is used in line 32, the phrase bit into most nearly means:
pinched.
ingested.
marred.
severed.

In the third paragraph of Passage B (lines 61–65), the author most clearly shifts from:
making an argument against musicians selling their instruments to using evidence from his life to support that argument.
introducing musicians he admires to explaining why he hopes people admire him as a musician.
examining his own emotions about his violin to explaining why musicians must develop a partner- ship with their instruments.
J. discussing the connection between other musicians and their instruments to pondering his own con- nection with his violin.

In Passage B, the statement that Lifschey “was not merely an excellent oboist; he was a great artist” (lines 44–45) can best be described as:
a fact supported by details about Lifschey’s career.
a fact confirmed by experts quoted in the passage.
an opinion that the author attributes to Lifschey’s colleagues and students.
an opinion that the author asserts but does not explain.

In Passage B, it can most reasonably be inferred that Heifetz’s response to the woman who congratulates him is intended to point out that:
the woman hears Heifetz’s violin differently than Heifetz does.
the woman isn’t qualified to judge the quality of Heifetz’s violin.
Heifetz enjoyed the woman’s humorous comment.
J.	Heifetz’s violin doesn’t make sounds by itself.

In Passage B, the author most directly indicates that the violin is sometimes an adversary by stating that it:
lies mute in its case.
makes him adjust to its whims.
responds with a range of emotion.
can’t speak with words.

Compared to Passage A, Passage B is more directly focused on the:
damage a musician can do to an instrument.
characteristics of an instrument that give clues to its history.
interdependence between musician and instrument.
J.	benefits of making instruments available to young children.

In contrast to the way the pianos are described in Pas- sage A, the passage author’s violin in Passage B is described as:
exhibiting unique characteristics.
having an active personality of its own.
sustaining damage from careless children.
being important to daily life.

Which of the following assertions about instruments is most strongly supported by details provided in both Passage A and Passage B?
Familiarity with your instrument is an important part of the joy of playing music.
Instruments should be revered and never treated like furniture.
Selling your instrument shows disrespect for the music you have made together.
J.		Maintaining proper humidity levels is essential to preserving an instrument.

3	3

Passage II

INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from the article “Notes from a Wedding” by Lauren Wilcox Puchowski (©2010 by Lauren Wilcox Puchowski).

It was never Kenney Holmes’s intention to become a wedding singer. The grandson of West Indian immi- grants, Holmes was raised in Gordon Heights, on Long Island,  in  what  he  calls  “a  small  black  community
5 founded by like-minded thinkers,” families of immi- grants and Southern blacks who, as Holmes says, “didn’t come here to fool around” and who handed down to their children their own keen sense of ambition.

10		“We grew up in that kind of atmosphere,” he says, “of positive thinking, of getting educated, whether or not you had a degree.”

Like any American boy in the 1950s and ’60s, he was fascinated with popular music: He listened to the
15 area’s one radio station, which “mostly played Sinatra”; sometimes in the evenings, with a coat hanger stuck into the top of his portable radio, he could pick up a faint signal from WWRL, a rhythm and blues station in New York City. When he was a teenager, his brother
20 brought home a guitar. “I was 16, it was a Sunday night,” he says. “I sat down and played ‘I Can’t Get No Satisfaction.’ I was addicted.”

While he was not a virtuoso, he was, he discov- ered, good at making money at it. He learned three
25 songs—“Satisfaction” by the Rolling Stones, “And I Love Her” by the Beatles, and “Shotgun” by Junior Walker and the All Stars—and formed a band. “We went out and sold it,” he says. “We could play those three songs all night. We got pretty popular out on the
30 island, playing battle of the bands, fire halls, high school proms, for $10 a night.”

Still, a career as a musician was not what he, or his family, had had in mind. Over the next few years, he says: “I did everything I could not to be a guitar player.
35 I went to college not to be a guitar player.” Thinking he would be a psychiatrist, he took pre-med classes but didn’t complete a degree. Along the way, he continued playing nightclubs and parties.
In his mid-20s, he visited his brother in Washing-
40 ton. Washington looked, to Holmes, like a good place to be an ambitious, career-minded black man, but it also had a thriving music scene in nightclubs and hotel lounges, and the next 15 years played out as a sort of tussle between his creative pursuits and his more busi-
45 ness-driven impulses. Trying to work his way up in the music scene, he played five and six nights a week in nightclubs and wrote his own music. He started a recording studio called Sound Ideas, which trawled local talent for the makings of a hit song, but he found
50  the pickings slim.

The club scene, after a long while, began to wear on him, as well. Unwilling to resign himself to the life

of a starving artist, when an agent approached him in the early ’90s about specializing in wedding and private
55  parties, Holmes decided to try it.

It was a revelation. “I could make in one night what I used to make in five,” he says. And “it changed the culture of what I was doing.”
Holmes was well-suited for the role of event band-
60 leader. His production skills helped him control his band’s sound, and his familiarity with country, big-band and classical music made him popular with audiences who wanted, as he says, “a tango or a Viennese waltz,” as well as Wilson Pickett.

65		Because business ebbs and flows with the seasons and the economy, Holmes has always kept a variety of sidelines, including a job driving a limousine for nine years to put his oldest daughter through a private high school and college. These days, at gigs, he hands out a
70 stack of million-dollar “bills” printed with his image and his current enterprises: bandleader, commercial mortgage broker, hard money lender.

Holmes uses as many as eight musicians and two singers for weddings. He accepts turnover as a fact of
75 running a band, but his current core lineup has, in the mercurial world of part-time performers, been fairly steady. Sam Brawner, the drummer, and Atiba Taylor, the sax player, have played with him for three and four years,  respectively,  and  Bruce  Robinson,  the  key-
80  boardist, has played with him for 15.

This is perhaps partly because Holmes insists on making music. During performances, he lets his musi- cians take the lead and uses specialized, stripped-down tracks, called digital sequences, to set the tempo and fill
85 in musical parts when necessary, ultimately preferring the messy alchemy of live music to something more canned. The musicians say that this is in contrast to other bandleaders they’ve worked for, who often rely heavily on recordings and use musicians more as visual
90 props. Holmes’s respect for the music endears him to his musicians. “These guys play from the heart,” says Robinson. “They’re not just trying to get through the gig.”

The main purpose of the passage is to:
explain why Holmes’s musical tastes gradually changed over time.
describe how Holmes’s hectic professional life affects his personal life.
highlight the different instruments Holmes mas- tered in becoming a famous musician.
document  how  Holmes  eventually  became  an enterprising bandleader.

3	3

One theme of the passage is that:
one’s previous experiences and pursuits can be useful in achieving success.
talent is the most important factor in achieving success in both business and music.
recognizing one’s limitations is necessary in over- coming one’s failures.
J.	pursuing  one’s  dreams  should  take  precedence over more practical matters.

Which of the following events referred to in the pas- sage occurred last chronologically?
Taylor joined Holmes’s band.
Brawner joined Holmes’s band.
Holmes started driving a limousine.
Holmes started Sound Ideas.

Based on the passage, the residents of Gordon Heights in the 1950s and 1960s would best be described as:
artistic and sophisticated.
driven and optimistic.

Based on the passage, the main reason Holmes eventu- ally preferred playing music at weddings and private parties to playing music in clubs was that:
he could play a wider variety of music at weddings and private parties.
audiences at weddings and private parties were easier to please.
weddings and private parties were more profitable.
weddings and private parties required less travel.

The main idea of the eleventh paragraph (lines 73–80) is that:
Holmes often has to alter his musical style based on which band members are available to play a gig.
Holmes typically needs more band members to play at weddings than he needs to play at private parties.
Holmes’s core lineup of band members has been relatively consistent for a business with a high turnover rate.

H.  friendly and easygoing.
J.	generous and dependable.

The main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 13–22) is to:
indicate why Holmes preferred rhythm and blues to Sinatra songs.
establish that Holmes’s parents disapproved of his interest in music.
reveal  that  Holmes  was  considered  a  musical prodigy.
describe what inspired Holmes to start playing music.

The main idea of the fourth paragraph (lines 23–31) is that:
Holmes was better at playing music than he was at promoting his band.
Holmes’s band was able to earn money despite having a limited repertoire.
Holmes’s band became a national phenomenon despite the band members’ lack of musical talent.
J.	Holmes would have had more success early on if he had taken the time to learn more songs.

J. Holmes’s core lineup of band members is con- stantly changing because Holmes expects his musicians to travel long distances.

It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage that Holmes’s band members like playing music with Holmes in part because, in contrast to other band lead- ers, Holmes:
is familiar with big band, classical, and country music.
allows band members to showcase their talents during gigs.
played music in the Washington club scene for fif- teen years.
uses sophisticated elements like digital sequences during gigs.4

In the passage, the phrase something more canned
(lines 86–87) most nearly refers to:
sound effects.
music videos.
improvised music.
J.	recorded music.

3	3

Passage III

INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from the article “Photography Changes How Cultural Groups Are Represented and Perceived” by Edwin Schupman (©2012 by The Smithson- ian Institution).

The author of the passage is a citizen of the Muscogee (Creek) Nation of Oklahoma.

Using photographs as educational resources pre- sents particular challenges and must be done with care. There is always more than face value in any photo, and historical photos of American Indians are no exception.
5 Photography’s rise in the late nineteenth century coin- cided with great change in American Indian communi- ties—an era that capped over three hundred years of diseases, wars, cultural disruption, and land disposses- sion.  As  Indian  people  struggled  to  adapt  to  cata-
10 strophic changes to their old ways of living, photographers took thousands of studio portraits and made what they believed to be neutral ethnographic images of the “vanishing Indian.” As Indian cultures bent  under  pressure  to  assimilate  into  mainstream
15 America, photographers routinely captured images that compared the new “civilized” Indian to the tradition- bound “savages.” Indian delegations that traveled to Washington, D.C., to defend tribal treaty rights were photographed in studios and in front of federal build-
20 ings. Photographers also accompanied government expeditions to the West where they documented tradi- tional cultures, leading the way for tourists and com- mercial photographers who followed, carrying their cameras and preconceptions into Native American com-
25 munities. These efforts generated a legacy of photo- graphic images of American Indian people that can serve today as rich educational resources. But if used carelessly, they can also fuel romanticized and stereo- typical perceptions of American Indians.

30		Consider some of the many photographs of Goyathlay, the Apache man who Mexicans named “Geronimo.” He and other Chiricahua Apaches fought a protracted war from 1863 to 1886 against the United States for the right to live in their traditional homelands
35  rather than on reservations.

The Chiricahua Apaches’ fight for freedom cap- tured the American imagination in the late nineteenth century. “Geronimo,” especially, became a legendary figure  and  a  media  phenomenon  whose  legacy  has
40 lasted into the twenty-first century. He became synony- mous with courage, daring, and savage ruthlessness. World War II paratroopers shouted his name as they jumped from airplanes into combat. Movies, television shows, comic books, popular songs, posters, T-shirts,
45 and American cities have borne his image and name. One photo that shows Goyathlay and three other Chiric- ahuas in their camp just prior to surrendering to U.S. forces in 1886 documents a critical and difficult day for the  people  who  had  fought  so  diligently  for  their
50  freedom.

In another well-known studio portrait, circa 1890, Goyathlay poses with a rifle. To late-nineteenth-century Americans, Geronimo was a dangerous enemy, yet at the same time a curiosity and romantic symbol of the
55 “Wild West.” This photo personifies the renegade image but, strangely, it was taken about two to four years after Goyathlay surrendered—while he was a prisoner of war. Why, then, was this photo taken? What meaning did it convey at the time? What must have been in
60 Goyathlay’s mind? What does the photo mean today? Is it loaded with historical truths or is it as empty as the prisoner’s bullet chamber?

A few years later, Goyathlay was photographed again, this time in a more pastoral pose and place—
65 holding a melon in a garden with his wife and three of their children. What was the meaning behind this photo? Did people of the time see it as a simple family photo, or did it personify the government’s policy toward Indians at the time—subduing feared and hated
70  warriors, “re-educating” them, and teaching them to farm in order to guide them toward a “better” way of life? Ironically, the Apaches had long farmed as part of the traditional life they fought so tenaciously to protect.
The educational potential of photographs is enor-
75 mous. However, photographs are not objective; they can easily tell as many lies as truths. As much as any writ- ten document, they have to be read with care in order to be understood accurately in unbiased and non- stereotypical terms. Every photo of people contains his-
80 tory, culture, and context. To do justice to the subjects and their stories, it is crucial to fill in the information gaps. In addition to conducting background research, try putting yourself inside these photos—stand next to Goyathlay, his peers, his wife, and their children, and
85 imagine their lives—you might begin to understand the world from their points of view. Framed with factual information and viewed empathetically, each photo- graph can reach its richest potential as a significant educational opportunity and resource.

Which of the following rhetorical techniques does the author repeatedly use in the passage as a means to engage the reader?
Forthright attacks on what he labels as readers’ misunderstanding of basic historical fact
Open-ended  questions  and  appeals  directed  to readers
Direct quotations from past readers of his work that capture their responses to his ideas
Descriptions of his own experiences as a citizen of the Muscogee (Creek) Nation of Oklahoma

3	3

It can most reasonably be inferred that the author’s statements about the educational use of photographs apply to photographs taken during what time period?
Any  time  period  since  photographs  were  first taken
In the nineteenth century exclusively
Any time period prior to the digital age, but not beyond
J.	Only in the ten years after photographers first joined government expeditions to the West

Which of the following words is most nearly given a negative connotation in the passage?
Educational (line 1)
Old (line 10)
Romanticized (line 28)
Traditional (line 34)

Which of the following actions referred to in the pas- sage most clearly characterizes a hypothetical event rather than an actual event?
F.	“Traveled to” (line 17)

In the passage, the author notes that a strange aspect of the photo of Goyathlay with a rifle is that the photo was taken:
by an unknown photographer.
when Goyathlay was a prisoner of war.
with Goyathlay’s permission.
by a US government photographer.

The author directly refers to which of the following aspects of the photograph of Goyathlay in a garden as being ironic?
Goyathlay was not a gardener but instead was in the midst of trying to stop the US government’s attack on his people.
Goyathlay’s people had long practiced farming, but the photo seemed to suggest that Goyathlay had learned farming from others.
People do not automatically think of Goyathlay as

“Defend” (line 18)
“Farmed” (line 72)

a man of peace.
J.	For years it was

assumed to be a photograph of

J.	“Stand next to” (line 83)

Particular photographs of Goyathlay are referred to and described by the author to support his claim that:
accurately understanding a photograph depends on knowing the circumstances in which a photograph was taken.
photographs can be used to date events in the life of a legendary figure like Goyathlay.
anyone can control his  or  her  public  image by becoming more involved in the field of photography.
the merits of a photograph from the nineteenth century depend on who took the photograph.

The author most strongly suggests that one reason commercial photographers began to photograph Native American communities was that commercial photogra- phers were:
instructed to do so by the US government.
devoted to creating educational resources about Native American communities.
committed to overcoming their preconceived ideas about the West.
J. influenced to do so by the photographers who had joined government expeditions to the West.

someone other than Goyathlay.

The author indicates that for the sake of an unbiased interpretation, compared to reading written documents with care, reading photographs with care is:
significantly more important.
slightly more important.
just as important.
slightly less important.

In line 86, the word framed is used figuratively to describe:
the  way  background  research  can  support  the proper viewing of a photograph.
a common means of preserving a photograph.
a technique in which a photograph is displayed with factual information surrounding it.
J.	the   manner   in   which   many   photographs   of Goyathlay are displayed in museums.

3	3

Passage IV

INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from Summer World: A Season of Bounty by Bernd Heinrich (©2009 by Bernd Heinrich).

Adaptations of plants to deserts include dormancy and a variety of structural and behavioral adaptations. The majority of desert plants depend on a strategy that capitalizes on small size. They are annuals that spring
5 up from dry, dormant, heat-resistant seeds. Some of these seeds may wait up to half a century before they are activated. The plants’ challenge is to be quick enough to respond to rain so that they can produce their seeds before the earth dries up again, while not jumping
10 the gun to start growth until there is sufficient water for them to grow to maturity for seed production. Some achieve this balance on a tightrope by “measuring” rainfall. They have chemicals in their seeds that inhibit germination, and a minimum amount of rain is required
15 before these are leached out. Others have seed coats that must be mechanically scarred to permit sufficient wetting for germination, and the scarring happens only when they are subjected to flash floods in the riverbeds where they grow. A plant in the Negev Desert releases
20 its seed from a tough capsule only under the influence of water through a mechanism that resembles a Roman ballistic machine. Its two outer sepals generate side- ways tension that can fling two seeds out of the fruit, but the two seeds are held inside by a lock mechanism
25 at the top. However, when the sepals are sufficiently wetted, then the tension increases to such an extent that the lock mechanism snaps, and the capsule “explodes” and releases the seeds.
In moist regions where it rains predictably (though
30 not necessarily in abundance), we help agricultural plants to capture the precipitation by scarring the soil to facilitate the infiltration of the water into it, and hence into the roots. Least runoff and maximum water absorp- tion are achieved by plowing the soil. However, such a
35 strategy would not work in a true desert such as the Negev. A different program is required there because rain is infrequent and plowing would facilitate only the evaporation of scarce water from the soil. The solution applied by the peoples who inhabited the Negev in past
40 centuries was a practice they called “runoff farming.” Farmers had mastered harnessing the flash floods that rush down into the gullies by catching the runoffs—not only by making terraces but also by building large cis- terns into which the water was directed to be held for
45  later use. Remnants of these constructions still exist.

Water-storage mechanisms have been invented by other organisms living in deserts, but mainly through modifications of body plan. Many plants, especially cacti and euphorbia, have the ability to swell their roots
50 or stems with water stores. Possibly the most familiar is the saguaro cactus, Carnegiea gigantea, of the Sonoran desert in the American southwest. It has a shallow root system that extends in all directions to distances of about its height, fifty feet. In one rainstorm the root
55  system can soak up 200 gallons of water, which are

transferred into its tall trunk. This trunk is pleated like an accordion and can swell to store tons of water that can last the plant for a year. The cactus has no leaves, but the stem is green and can photosynthesize and pro-
60 duce nutrients as well as store water. The saguaro’s sur- vival strategy requires it to grow extremely slowly. But it lives a century or more.

Some desert animals similarly store water. The frog Cyclorana platycephala, from the northern Aus-
65 tralian desert, fills up and greatly expands its urinary bladder to use as a water bag before burying itself in the soil, where it spends most of the year waiting for the next rain. While in the ground it sloughs off skin and forms around itself a nearly waterproof cocoon that
70 resembles a plastic bag and reduces evaporative water loss.

Desert ants of a variety of species (of at least seven different genera) in American as well as Aus- tralian deserts collectively called “honeypot ants” have
75 evolved a solution that combines water storage with energy storage. Ants typically feed each other; and some of the larger worker ants may take up more liquid than the others, and others may bring more. Those that take the fluid may gorge themselves until they distend
80 their abdomens up to the size of a grape, by which time they are unable to move from the spot. They then hang in groups of dozens to hundreds from the ceiling of a chamber in the ant nest, where they are then the spe- cialized so-called repletes that later regurgitate fluid
85 when the colony members are no longer bringing the fluid in but rather needing it.

The fourth paragraph (lines 63–71) marks a shift in the focus of the passage from:
plants that store water above ground to plants that store water below ground.
animals that don’t go dormant to animals that do go dormant.
desert-dwelling plants to desert-dwelling animals.
inhabitants of the Negev Desert to inhabitants of northern Australian deserts.

Based on the passage, the author’s use of the word “measuring” (line 12) most nearly describes the way that some desert plants:
have roots that are extremely sensitive to moisture levels in the soil.
have methods of delaying seed germination until a certain amount of water is present.
are visibly more vigorous after a rainfall.
J.	can calculate how many inches of rain have fallen in recent days.

3	3

Which of the following statements best summarizes the process by which the frog Cyclorana platycephala sur- vives in the desert?
The frog stores water in its body, buries itself, and conserves water until emerging at the next rain.
The frog buries itself, waits for rain, absorbs rain- water through its skin, and emerges.
The frog forms a nearly waterproof cocoon around itself, buries itself, and waits to emerge until it needs water.
The frog buries itself, absorbs water through its skin, and goes dormant until springtime.

Based on the passage, which of the following plants and animals employ a communal strategy to survive in the desert?
The saguaro cactus only
The saguaro cactus and the frog Cyclorana platy- cephala only
The frog Cyclorana platycephala and honeypot ants only
J.	Honeypot ants only

The passage most strongly suggests that compared to the frog Cyclorana platycephala, the honeypot ants are unique in that they:
can store water inside their bodies.
live in Australian deserts.
combine water storage with energy storage.
go dormant during dry times.

Which of the following provides the best paraphrase of lines 7–11?
Annual plants survive in deserts by making seeds swiftly when conditions are right.
Annual plants in deserts make seeds during dry conditions so the seeds will be ready when rain arrives.
Dry conditions require the seeds of desert plants to start germination prior to the arrival of rain.
J.	The seeds of annual plants in deserts are designed to wait years for the right conditions for growth.

Based on the passage, it can most reasonably be inferred that the scarring some seeds require before germination is accomplished through:
intense drying experienced between rainfalls.
internal tension from the seed capsule’s sepals.
chemicals in the seeds.
abrasion sustained during flash floods.

As it is used in line 26, the word extent most nearly means:
length.
degree.
reach.
J.	boundary.

According to the passage, which of the following actions did people in the Negev Desert take in order to farm there?
Plowing the soil
Widening gullies
Constructing terraces
Constructing aqueducts

Based on the passage, the pleats in the body of the saguaro cactus:
increase the efficiency of photosynthesis.
allow the cactus to expand for storing water.
reduce evaporative water loss.
J.	regulate the cactus’s growth.

END OF TEST 3 STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

4	4
SCIENCE TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and ﬁll in the corresponding oval on your answer document. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

Passage I

In a particular playa (relatively flat, dry desert basin) evidence shows that some large rocks have moved along the surface, leaving shallow trails in the clay sediment, some up to several hundred meters long. Three scientists provided explanations for how these rocks moved.

Scientist 1
In the spring, snowmelt from surrounding mountains runs downhill and collects in the playa. At night, cold tem- peratures cause this water to freeze around the rocks. When temperatures rise again, the ice begins to melt, leaving a layer of mud on the surface and ice “rafts” around the rocks. The buoyancy of the ice rafts floats the rocks on top of the mud such that even light winds can then push the rocks along the surface. Evidence of this lifting is seen in that the trails left by rocks are both shallow and only about 2/3 as wide as the rocks themselves. Due to the combina- tion of ice, mud, and light winds, the rocks are able to move several hundred meters in a few days.

Scientist 2
Snowmelt from surrounding mountains does collect in the playa during the spring. However, the temperature in the playa does not get cold enough for ice to form. When the playa’s surface gets wet, the top layer of clay trans- forms into a slick, muddy film. In addition, dormant algae present in the dry clay begin to grow rapidly when the clay becomes wet. The presence of mud and algae reduces fric- tion between the rocks and the clay. Even so, relatively strong winds are required to push the rocks along the wet surface, forming trails. Due to the combination of mud, algae, and strong winds, the rocks are able to move several hundred meters in a few hours.

Scientist 3
Water does collect in the playa, producing mud and ice. However, neither mud nor ice is responsible for the rocks’ movements. The playa is located along a fault line between tectonic plates. Minor vertical shifts in the plates cause the rocks to move downhill, leaving trails. Due to the combination of tectonic plate movement and strong winds, the rocks are able to move only a few meters over several years.

According to Scientist 2, friction between the rocks and the clay is reduced by which of the following?
Ice only
Algae only
Ice and mud only
Mud and algae only

Suppose a researcher observed that wind speeds greater than 80 miles per hour are needed to move the rocks in the playa. This observation is consistent with which of the scientists’ explanations?
Scientists 1 and 2 only
Scientists 1 and 3 only
Scientists 2 and 3 only
J.	Scientists 1, 2, and 3

Suppose that no seismic activity was recorded in the playa where the trails left by the rocks are found. This finding would weaken which of the scientists’ explanations?
Scientist 1 only
Scientist 3 only
Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 only
Scientist 2 and Scientist 3 only

Suppose it were discovered that a particular rock formed a 200 m long trail in 72 hr. Would this discov- ery support Scientist 1’s explanation?
Yes; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev- eral hundred meters in a few hours.
Yes; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev- eral hundred meters in a few days.
No; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev- eral hundred meters in a few hours.
No; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev- eral hundred meters in a few days.

4	4

Suppose that during one year there was no measurable movement of any rocks in the playa during the spring. Scientists 1 and 2 would most likely both agree that this was due to the absence of which of the following factors?
Algae
Snowmelt
Strong winds
Subzero temperatures

Suppose that air temperature in the playa varies between 4°C and 47°C. Would this information sup- port the explanation of Scientist 2 ?
Yes, because ice cannot form in that temperature range.
Yes,  because  ice  can  form  in  that  temperature range.
No, because ice cannot form in that temperature range.
J.	No,  because  ice  can  form  in  that  temperature range.

Based on Scientist 1’s explanation, a rock trail that is 33 cm wide was most likely made by a rock with approximately what width?
10 cm
25 cm
50 cm
65 cm

4	4

Passage II

When certain substances are added to diet cola, CO2 gas is produced, generating a foam. Two experiments were done to study this process.

In each trial, an apparatus like that shown in Figure 1 was used as follows: A jar was nearly filled with H2O and fitted with a 2-holed lid. One end of a tube (Tube B) was inserted through one of the holes and submerged. The other end of Tube B was placed in an empty graduated cylinder. Another tube (Tube A) was inserted through the other hole in the lid. A certain solid substance was inserted into the other end of Tube A, and the substance was secured by a clamp. Tube A was then attached to a freshly opened bottle containing 355 mL of diet cola. The clamp was removed, releasing the substance into the diet cola. The foam that was produced traveled into the jar, and liquid was trans- ferred into the cylinder. The mass of CO2 produced was calculated based on the volume of liquid that was measured in the cylinder after foaming had ceased.

substance

Tube A	Tube B

clamp

Experiment 1
In each of Trials 1−4, a different 1 of 4 substances of equal mass—a piece of chalk, a sugar cube, a fruit-flavored piece of candy, or a mint-flavored piece of candy—was added to a bottle of diet cola at 3°C. See Table 1.

		Table 1		

Trial	

Substance	Volume of liquid in cylinder
(mL)	Mass of CO2 produced
(g)	
1	chalk	699	1.36	
2	sugar cube	570	1.11	
3	fruit candy	525	1.02	
4	mint candy	631	1.23	

Experiment 2
In each of Trials 5−8, Trial 4 from Experiment 1 was repeated, except that the temperature of the diet cola was different in each trial. See Table 2.

		Table 2		

Trial	
Temperature (°C)	Volume of liquid in cylinder
(mL)	Mass of CO2 produced
(g)	
5	10	598	1.13	
6	25	539	0.969	
7	45	501	0.844	
8	60	476	0.766	

bottle	jar	graduated cylinder

Figure 1

Tables 1 and 2 adapted from Christopher J. Huber and Aaron M. Massari, “Quantifying the Soda Geyser.” ©2014 by Division of Chemical Education, Inc., American Chemical Society.

4	4

If another trial had been performed in Experiment 2 and 450 mL of liquid had been measured in the cylin- der, the temperature of the diet cola in this trial would most likely have been:
less than 25°C.
between 25°C and 45°C.
between 45°C and 60°C.
J.	greater than 60°C.

Suppose Trial 6 had been repeated, but the bottle of diet cola had been opened and then left undisturbed at 25°C for 12 hours before it was attached to the appara- tus. Would the mass of CO2 produced in this trial likely be greater than 0.969 g or less than 0.969 g ?
Greater, because over the 12 hours, the concentra- tion of CO2 in the diet cola would have decreased.
Greater, because over the 12 hours, the concentra-
tion of CO2 in the diet cola would have increased.
Less, because over the 12 hours, the concentration of CO2 in the diet cola would have decreased.
Less, because over the 12 hours, the concentration
of CO2 in the diet cola would have increased.
One millimole (mmol) of CO2 has a mass of 0.044 g. How many trials resulted in the production of at least 1 mmol of CO2 ?
1
4
5
J.	8

According to Figure 1, which of Tube A and Tube B, if either, had at least one end submerged in a liquid before the clamp was removed?
Tube A only
Tube B only
Both Tube A and Tube B
Neither Tube A nor Tube B

Is the relationship between the volume of liquid in the cylinder at the end of the experiment and the mass of CO2 produced a direct relationship or an inverse relationship?
Direct; as the volume of liquid that was measured in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO2 pro- duced increased.
Direct; as the volume of liquid that was measured in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO2 pro- duced decreased.
Inverse; as the volume of liquid that was measured in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO2 pro- duced increased.
J.  Inverse; as the volume of liquid that was measured in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO2 pro- duced decreased.

Consider these steps that were performed in each trial.
Removing clamp
Measuring liquid in cylinder
Inserting a solid substance into Tube A
Attaching Tube A to a bottle of diet cola
According  to  the  procedure,  these  steps  were  per- formed in what sequence?
A.   3, 1, 2, 4
B.   3, 4, 1, 2
C.   4, 2, 3, 1
D.   4, 3, 1, 2

Assume that room temperature is 25°C. In how many trials was the diet cola tested at a temperature lower than room temperature?
1
2
5
J.	8

4	4

Key

iron
Species M Species U

zinc
Species M Species U

Passage III

average iron or zinc content (μg/g*)

Scientists studied the effects of pH and of nickel con- centration on plant growth and on the uptake of iron and zinc by plants. Recently germinated seedlings of Species M and Species U were fed 1 of 12 nutrient solutions (Solu-

tions 1−12) for 8 days and then were harvested. Solu- tions 1−12 differed only in pH and/or nickel concentration. Table 1 shows, for each species, the average dry mass of the plants that were fed each nutrient solution. Figure 1 shows, for each species, the average iron content and the average zinc content of the plants that were fed Solu- tions 1−4.

1,000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0

0	5	10	15
nickel concentration (μM)

		Table 1		

Solution	

pH	
Nickel concentration (μM*)	Average dry mass (g) of plants of Species:	
			M	U	
1	7	0	33.9	10.7	
2	7	5	28.8	10.7	
3	7	10	23.8	9.6	
4	7	15	18.7	8.5	
5	6	0	33.9	9.2	
6	6	5	28.8	9.2	
7	6	10	23.8	8.1	
8	6	15	18.7	7.0	
9	5	0	27.8	7.7	
10	5	5	22.7	7.7	
11	5	10	17.6	6.6	
12	5	15	12.4	5.4	
*μM = mi	cromo	les per liter			

*μg/g = micrograms of iron or zinc per gram of plant dry mass

Figure 1

According to Figure 1, as the nickel concentration in the nutrient solutions increased, the average iron con- tent of Species M plants:
increased only.
decreased only.
increased, then decreased.
decreased, then increased.

4	4

According to Table 1, the Species U plants that were fed the solution that had a pH of 6 and a nickel concen- tration of 10 μM had an average dry mass of:
F.	7.0 g.
G.	8.1 g.
H.	9.2 g.
J.	23.8 g.

According to Table 1, Species M plants that were fed a nutrient solution with which of the following combina- tions of pH and nickel concentration had the greatest average dry mass?
	pH		nickel concentration	
A.	6		0 μM	
B.	6		5 μM	
C.	5		0 μM	
D.	5		5 μM	
According to Table 1 and Figure 1, the Species M plants that were fed Solution 3 had an average zinc content of:
100 μg/g.
150 μg/g.
200 μg/g.
J.	400 μg/g.

According to Table 1 and Figure 1, for the Species M plants that were fed Solutions 1−4, what was the order of the nutrient solutions, from the solution that resulted in the lowest average iron content to the solu- tion that resulted in the highest average iron content?
A.   1, 2, 3, 4
B.   1, 4, 3, 2
C.   4, 2, 1, 3
D.   4, 3, 2, 1

According to Table 1, compared to the average dry mass of Species U plants that were fed Solution 3, the average dry mass of Species M plants that were fed Solution 6 was approximately:
_1_ as great.
3
_1_ as great.
2
2 times as great.
J.	3 times as great.

4	4
Experiment 1
Passage IV	A set of 9 trials was conducted with each of the 4 cat-

Ammonia (NH ) can be produced according to the

alysts. For each set, the pressure was 150 atm; within each

chemical equation

3

N2 + 3H2	2NH3

set, the temperature was different for each trial. Figure 1 shows, for each trial, the number of cycles of Steps 2−4.

Key
Catalyst W Catalyst X Catalyst Y Catalyst Z

The equilibrium arrow ( ) indicates that this reaction proceeds in both directions until it is at equilibrium, so that both the forward reaction (production of NH3) and the backward reaction (production of N2 and H2) occur at the same rate. Equilibrium can be shifted forward or backward
by changing the temperature, pressure, or concentration of	50
reactants or products.	45
Two experiments were done using the following appa-	40

number of cycles

ratus to produce NH3.

reactor

Pipe A

Pipe B

35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
300	350	400	450	500
temperature (°C)

Figure 1

H2	N2

condenser

NH3

Experiment 2
Four sets of 9 trials each were conducted with Cata- lyst Z. For each set, the temperature was different; within each set, the pressure was different for each trial. Figure 2 shows, for each trial, the amount of NH3  produced in the
first cycle of Steps 2−4.

Key
300°C
350°C
400°C
450°C

diagram of apparatus

In each trial, Steps 1−4 occurred:

A fresh catalyst (Catalyst W, X, Y, or Z), 160 kg of H2,

amount of NH3  (kg)

and 745 kg of N2 were placed in the reactor.	700

The H2 and N2 reacted at a constant temperature and a constant pressure until equilibrium was established.

A mixture of NH3 and any unreacted H2 and N2 flowed through Pipe A to a −50°C condenser at 1 atmosphere (atm) of pressure.

NH3 condensed and exited the apparatus. (H2 and N2 do not condense at −50°C.) Any unreacted H2 and N2 flowed into Pipe B, returning to the reactor.

Steps 2−4 reoccurred in cycles until no more H2  and N2 returned from the condenser.

600
500
400
300
200
100
100	150	200	250	300
pressure (atm)

Figure 2

4	4

Diagram and figures adapted from Jayant M. Modak, “Haber Process for Ammonia Synthesis.” ©2002 by Indian Academy of Sciences.

According to the results of Experiment 1, for any given catalyst, as the temperature was increased, the number of cycles needed to complete the reaction:
increased only.

Consider the results of Experiment 1 for 375°C. All the H2 and N2 were consumed in less than 20 cycles when which catalysts were used?
Catalysts W and X only
Catalysts Y and Z only
Catalysts W, X, and Y only
J.    Catalysts X, Y, and Z only

If a trial had been performed in Experiment 2 at 425°C and 225 atm, the amount of NH3 produced would most likely have been:
less than 230 kg.
between 230 kg and 320 kg.
between 320 kg and 410 kg.
greater than 410 kg.
At  1 atm  of  pressure,  the  melting  point  of  NH3   is
−77°C and the boiling point of NH3 is −33°C. Based on this information and the description of the appara- tus, when the NH3 exited the condenser, was it more likely a solid or a liquid?
F.		Solid, because the temperature of the condenser was lower than the melting point of NH3  and the

decreased only.
increased, then decreased.
decreased, then increased.

In Experiment 1, 26 cycles were needed to complete the reaction at 450°C when which catalyst was used?
Catalyst W
Catalyst X
Catalyst Y
J.	Catalyst Z

The movement of H2 and N2 through the apparatus as Steps 1−4 occurred is best represented by which of the following expressions?
Reactor → condenser → Pipe A → Pipe B
Condenser → reactor → Pipe A → Pipe B
Reactor → Pipe A → condenser → Pipe B
Condenser → Pipe A → reactor → Pipe B

boiling point of NH3.
Solid, because the temperature of the condenser was between the melting point of NH3 and the boiling point of NH3.
Liquid, because the temperature of the condenser
was higher than the melting point of NH3  and the boiling point of NH3.
J.	Liquid, because the temperature of the condenser
was between the melting point of NH3  and the boiling point of NH3.
Consider the trial in Experiment 2 that  produced 550 kg of NH3 . Based on Figure 1, the number of cycles that were needed to complete the reaction in this trial was most likely:
less than 5.
between 5 and 10.
between 10 and 15.
greater than 15.

4	4

Passage V

As a sound wave travels through a medium, the wave becomes attenuated (loses energy). The attenuation coeffi- cient, α, is the rate at which the wave’s intensity level (a measure of sound volume) decreases with distance as a result of this energy loss; the greater the value of α, the greater the decrease in intensity level with distance. Figure 1 shows, for waves of 3 different frequencies (in hertz, Hz), how α (in decibels per kilometer, dB/km) varies with temperature in air at 10% relative humidity.

Figure 2 shows, for waves of 3 different frequencies, how α varies with relative humidity in air at 20°C.

Key
1,000 Hz
500 Hz
200 Hz

14
12

α (dB/km)

10
8
6
4

Key
1,000 Hz
500 Hz
200 Hz

24	2
21	0

α (dB/km)

18	10	20	30	40	50	60	70	80	90
15
12	relative humidity (percent)
9	Figure 2
6
3
0
−20	0	20	40	60	80	100
temperature (°C)
Figures adapted from Richard Lord, “Calculation of Absorption of
Figure 1	Sound by the Atmosphere.” ©2004 National Physical Laboratory.

4	4

What is the approximate maximum α shown in Figure 1 for a 200 Hz sound wave in air at 10% relative humidity, and at approximately what temperature does that maximum occur?
	α (dB/km)		temperature (°C)	
F.	3.0		−5	
G.	3.0		35	
H.	9.5		−5	
J.	9.5		35	
Based on Figure 2, the attenuation coefficient for a 1,000 Hz sound wave in air at 20°C reaches a minimum value at a relative humidity closest to which of the following?
A.   25%
B.   45%
C.   65%
D.   85%

For the range of temperatures and the range of relative humidities shown in Figures 1 and 2, respectively, is α for a 200 Hz sound wave more strongly affected by changes in temperature or by changes in relative humidity?
F.  Temperature, because the maximum variation in α is about 0.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about 2.5 dB/km in Figure 2.

Suppose that 2 sound waves—a 150 Hz wave and a 1,100 Hz wave—are simultaneously emitted from a speaker into air at 20°C and 45% relative humidity. Based on Figure 2, as the waves travel away from the speaker, the intensity level of which wave will more likely decrease at the greater rate due to attenuation?
The 150 Hz wave, because the value of α is lesser for the 150 Hz wave than for the 1,100 Hz wave.
The 150 Hz wave, because the value of α is greater for the 150 Hz wave than for the 1,100 Hz wave.
The 1,100 Hz wave, because the value of α is lesser for the 1,100 Hz wave than for the 150 Hz wave.
J. The 1,100 Hz wave, because the value of α is greater for the 1,100 Hz wave than for the 150 Hz wave.

The graph below shows, for sound waves of 3 different frequencies, how α varies with relative humidity in air at a particular temperature.
20

16

Temperature, because the maximum variation in α

α (dB/km)

is about 2.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about 0.5 dB/km

1,000 Hz

in Figure 2.
Relative humidity, because the maximum variation

12
500 Hz

in  α  is  about  0.5 dB/km  in  Figure 1  but  about	8
2.5 dB/km in Figure 2.
J.	Relative humidity, because the maximum variation	4
in  α  is  about  2.5 dB/km  in  Figure 1  but  about

200 Hz

0.5 dB/km in Figure 2.

0
10	20	30	40	50

31. Consider a 1,000 Hz sound wave in air at 10% relative	relative humidity (percent)
humidity. At how many of the temperatures shown in
Figure 1  does  α   for  this  wave  have  a  value  of	Based on Figure 1, the particular air temperature is 18 dB/km ?	most likely which of the following?

A.   2	A.	−20°C	
B.   3	B.	0°C	
C.   4	C.	20°C	
D.   5	D.	100°C	

4	4

Passage VI
Three studies compared the effects of 5 sweeteners

Study 2
A 1 mL blood sample from each rat was placed in a sepa	t

(Sweeteners Q−U) on food consumption by rats and on the

rate test
reac

ube containing 0.2 mL of Indicator N (which

concentrations of leptin and ghrelin (hormones that regu-
late appetite) in the blood of rats. Sweeteners Q−U differ

ts with leptin to form a blue dye). The concentration of
blue dye in each tube was directly proportional to the leptin
co	.

only in the percent by mass of fructose and of glucose (see

ncentration in the blood sample
co

Table 3 shows the leptin

	Table	3	

Group	

Sweetener	Leptin concentration per sample (pM*)	
1	Q	804	
2	R	622	
3	S	553	
4	T	475	
5	U	251	
*picom	olar		

Table 1).

ncentration per sample for each group.

	Table 1	

Sweetener	Percent by mass of:	
	fructose	glucose	
Q	0	100	
R	42	58	
S	50	50	
T	55	45	
U	100	0	

Study 1
Each of 5 groups (Groups 1−5) of rats was assigned a solution having  a  100  g/L  concentration  of  1  of  the 5 sweeteners. Each rat was placed in a separate cage and provided unlimited access to the assigned sweetener solu- tion and to solid food for 56 days. Table 2 shows, for each group, the amounts of sweetener solution and solid food consumed per rat per day. On Day 56, blood was collected from each rat for analysis in Studies 2 and 3.

Study 3
Study 2 was repeated, except that Indicator P (which reacts with ghrelin to form a yellow dye) was used instead of Indicator N. The concentration of yellow dye in each tube was directly proportional to the ghrelin concentration in the blood sample (see Table 4).

	Tab	le 2	

Group	

Sweetener	Amount consumed per rat per day	
		sweetener solution (mL)	solid food (g)	
1	Q	73	9	
2	R	55	14	
3	S	52	16	
4	T	48	18	
5	U	29	23	

 	
	Table	4	

Group	

Sweetener	Ghrelin concentration per sample (pM)	
1	Q	852	
2	R	1,125	
3	S	1,279	
4	T	1,450	
5	U	1,758	

Table 2 adapted from Heather R. Light et al., “The Type of Caloric Sweetener Added to Water Influences Weight Gain, Fat Mass, and Reproduction in Growing Sprague-Dawley Female Rats.” ©2009 by the Society for Experimental Biology and Medicine.

Tables 3 and 4 adapted from Andreas Lindqvist, Annemie Baelemans, and Charlotte Erlanson-Albertsson, “Effects of Sucrose, Glucose and Fructose on Peripheral and Central Appetite Signals.” ©2008 by Elsevier B.V.

4	4

In Study 1, as the ratio of fructose to glucose in the sweetener solutions increased, the amount of sweet- ener solution consumed per rat per day:
increased only.
decreased only.
increased and then decreased.
J.	decreased and then increased.

In Study 1, the amount of sweetener solution con- sumed daily by each rat could be measured because which of the following steps had been taken?
The rats’ access to solid food had been restricted.
The rats’ access to solid food had not been restricted.
The rats had been placed in the same cage.
The rats had been placed in separate cages.

Suppose that a sweetener composed of 46% fructose and 54% glucose by mass had been tested in Study 1. Based on Table 1 and the results of Study 3, the ghrelin concentration per sample would most likely have been:
less than 852 pM.
between 852 pM and 1,125 pM.
between 1,125 pM and 1,279 pM.
greater than 1,279 pM.

Consider the claim “The group of rats that consumed the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day was also the group that had the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.” Do the results of Studies 1 and 2 support this claim?
Yes; the rats in Group 1 consumed the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day and also had the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.
Yes; the rats in Group 5 consumed the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day and also had the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.
No; the rats in Group 1 consumed the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day, but the rats in Group 5 had the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.
No; the rats in Group 5 consumed the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day, but the rats in Group 1 had the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.

Which of the following groups of rats should have been included in Study 1 to serve as a control for the effect of consuming a sweetener solution on the con- sumption of solid food by rats? A group of rats that had access:
only to water.
only to solid food.
only to water and solid food.
J.	to neither water nor solid food.

Consider the sweetener that resulted in a solid food consumption of 16 g per rat per day in Study 1. Based on Table 1, how many grams of fructose would be present in 200 g of this sweetener?
50 g
100 g
150 g
200 g

The experimental designs of Studies 2 and 3 were identical with respect to which of the factors listed below, if either?
The chemical indicator that was used
The hormone with which the chemical indica- tor reacted
I only
II only
Both I and II
J.	Neither I nor II

END OF TEST 4 STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.

Practice Writing Test

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52

Extracurricular Activities and Codes of Conduct
For many students, extracurricular activities are a meaningful part of the high school experience. These activities allow students to develop their skills in areas such as sports, music, and drama while building relationships with peers and gaining experience performing or competing. But at many schools, students who participate in extracurricular activities are subject to special codes of conduct. These codes often establish high standards for academic performance and behavior, and students must meet the standards to stay eligible for their activities. Should students who participate in extracurricular activities be subject to special codes of conduct?

Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about the question above.

Perspective One	Perspective Two	Perspective Three

All school rules and standards must apply equally to every student. It is unfair to hold students who play sports or music to higher standards than students who do not.

Participation in school activities is a privilege, not a right. It is fair to ask students to earn this privilege by studying hard and behaving themselves.

School programs should be open to all students. Not all
students can meet high standards, which means not all students
can participate in extracurricular activities.

Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you address the question of whether students who participate in extracurricular activities should be subject to special codes of conduct. In your essay, be sure to:
clearly state your own perspective and analyze the relationship between your perspective and at least one other perspective
develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
organize your ideas clearly and logically
communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English

Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of those given, in partial agreement, or completely different.

Planning Your Essay
Your work on these prewriting pages will not be scored.

Use the space below and on the back cover to generate ideas and plan your essay. You may wish to consider the following as you think critically about the task:
Strengths and weaknesses of different perspectives on the issue
What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?
Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?
Your own knowledge, experience, and values
What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?
How will you support your perspective in your essay?

Note
For your practice essay, you will need scratch paper to plan your essay and four lined sheets of paper for your response.
On test day, if you are taking the paper test, you will receive a test booklet with space to plan your essay and an answer document with four lined pages on which to write your response.
Read pages 68–69 for information and instructions on scoring your practice writing test.

You may wish to remove this sample answer document from the booklet to use in a practice test session for the four multiple choice tests and the writing test.

  	

 	

 	

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Scoring Your Tests

How to Score the Multiple-Choice Tests
Follow the instructions below and on the following pages  to score your practice multiple-choice tests and review your performance.
Raw Scores
The number of questions you answered correctly on each test and in each reporting category is your raw score.
Because there are many forms of the ACT, each with different questions, some forms will be slightly easier (and some slightly harder) than others. A raw score of 67 on one form of the English test, for example, may be about as
difficult to earn as a raw score of 70 on another form of that test.
To compute your raw scores, check your answers with the scoring keys on pages 64–66. Count the number of correct answers for each of the four tests and seventeen reporting categories and enter the number in the blanks provided on those pages. These numbers are your raw scores on the tests and reporting categories.
Scale Scores
To adjust for the small differences that occur among different forms of the ACT, the raw scores for tests are converted into scale scores. Scale scores are printed on the reports sent to you and your college and scholarship choices.
When your raw scores are converted into scale scores, it becomes possible to compare your scores with those of examinees who took different test forms. For example, a scale score of 26 on the English test has the same meaning regardless of the form of the ACT on which it is based.
To determine the scale scores corresponding to your raw scores on the practice test, use Table 1 on page 67, which explains the procedures used to obtain scale
scores from raw scores. This table shows the raw-to-scale score conversions for each test. Because each form of  the ACT is unique, each form has somewhat different conversion tables. Consequently, this table provides only approximations of the raw-to-scale score conversions
that would apply if a different form of the ACT were taken. Therefore, the scale scores obtained from the practice tests don’t match precisely the scale scores received from an actual administration of the ACT.
Computing the Composite Score
The Composite score is the average of the four scale scores in English, mathematics, reading, and science. If you left any of these tests blank, do not calculate a Composite score. If you take the ACT with writing, your writing results do not affect your Composite score.

Comparing Your Scores
Information about comparing your scores on the practice multiple-choice tests with the scores of recent high school graduates who took the ACT can be found at www.act.org/the-act/scores.
Your scores and percent at or below are only estimates of the scores that you will receive during an actual administration   of the ACT. Test scores are only one indicator of your level
of learning. Consider your scores in connection with your grades, your performance in outside activities, and your career interests.
ACT College and Career Readiness Standards The ACT College and Career Readiness Standards describe the types of skills, strategies, and understandings you will need to make a successful transition from high school to college. For English, mathematics, reading, and science, standards are provided for six score ranges that reflect
the progression and complexity of the skills in each of the academic areas measured by the ACT tests. For writing, standards are provided for five score ranges. The ACT College  and  Career  Readiness  Standards  and  benchmark scores for each test can be found at www.act.org.

Reviewing Your Performance on the Multiple-Choice Tests
Consider the following as you review your scores:
y Did you run out of time? Reread the information in this booklet on pacing yourself. You may need to adjust the
way you use your time in responding to the questions.
y Did you spend too much time trying to understand the directions for the tests? The directions for the practice
tests are the same directions that will appear in your test booklet on test day. Make sure you understand them before test day by reviewing them again.
y Review the questions that you missed. Did you select
a response that was an incomplete answer or that did
not directly respond to the question being asked? Try to figure out what you overlooked in answering the missed questions.
y Did a particular type of question confuse you? Did the
questions you missed come from a particular reporting
category? In reviewing your responses, check to see whether a particular type of question or a particular reporting category was more difficult for you.

Scoring Keys for the ACT Practice Tests
Use the scoring key for each test to score your answer document for the multiple-choice tests. Mark a “1” in the blank for each question you answered correctly. Add up the numbers in each reporting category and enter the total number correct for each reporting category in the blanks provided. Also enter the total number correct for each test in the blanks provided. The total number correct for each test is the sum of the number correct in each reporting category.

Test 1: English—Scoring Key	2176CPRE

Key	Reporting Category*	
	POW	KLA	CSE	
1.   C				
2.   J	 				
3.   A		 			
4.   F	 				
5.   C		 			
6.   J				
7.   B		 			
8.   G	 				
9.   A				
10.   J	 				
11.   B				
12.   J				
13.   C				
14.   F	 				
15.   C	 				
16.   F				
17.   D		 			
18.   J				
19.   C				
20.   J		 			
21.   B	 				
22.   J				
23.   D				
24.   J				
25.   B	 				
26.   H	 				
27.   B				
28.   H	 				
29.   A	 				
30.   H				
31.   A				
32.   G				
33.   A		 			
34.   J				
35.   A				
36.   H		 			
37.   D				
38.   G	 				

Key	Reporting Category*	
	POW	KLA	CSE	
39.   C	 				
40.   F				
41.   C				
42.   J				
43.   B	 				
44.   G	 				
45.   C	 				
46.   J				
47.   A				
48.   G				
49.   A				
50.   H				
51.   C	 				
52.   H	 				
53.   D				
54.   J		 			
55.   A				
56.   J	 				
57.   D				
58.   G				
59.   A		 			
60.   G	 				
61.   C				
62.   J		 			
63.   B				
64.   G		 			
65.   D				
66.   G	 				
67.   A				
68.   G				
69.   C	 				
70.   G				
71.   A				
72.   J	 				
73.   A				
74.   G				
75.   A		 			

*Reporting Categories POW = Production of Writing
KLA  = Knowledge of Language
CSE  = Conventions of Standard English

 	

 	

 	

 	

 	
Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Production of Writing (POW)

Knowledge of Language (KLA)

 	
(23)
 	 (12)

Conventions of Standard English (CSE)  	
(40)
Total Number Correct for English Test    		 (POW + KLA + CSE)	(75)

Test 2: Mathematics—Scoring Key	2176CPRE

Key			Reporting Category*		
			PHM			

IES	

MDL	
	N	A		F	G	S			
1.   E								
2.   J		 							
3.   B								
4.   G								
5.   C		 							
6.   F								
7.   B								
8.   H								
9.   D								
10.   G	 								
11.   B								
12.   G								
13.   D								
14.   J								
15.   A		 							
16.   K		 							
17.   D								
18.   J	 								
19.   A								
20.   F								
21.   E								
22.   G								
23.   E								
24.   H								
25.   D								
26.   G								
27.   E								
28.   H								
29.   C								
30.   H								

 	

Key			Reporting Category*		
			PHM			

IES	

MDL	
	N	A		F	G	S			
31.   B	 								
32.   K								
33.   D								
34.   F								
35.   E								
36.   J								
37.   C								
38.   F								
39.   D	 								
40.   K								
41.   A		 							
42.   J								
43.   D								
44.   G		 							
45.   E		 							
46.   F								
47.   D								
48.   G								
49.   D								
50.   K								
51.   D								
52.   K								
53.   A								
54.   G								
55.   B	 								
56.   K		 							
57.   D								
58.   K								
59.   B								
60.   F								

5

5

Combine the totals of these columns and put in the blank for PHM in the box below.

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Preparing for Higher Math (PHM) (N + A + F + G + S)
Integrating Essential Skills (IES)

(35)

(25)
Total Number Correct for Mathematics Test	 		 (PHM + IES)		(60)

Modeling (MDL)
(Not included in total number correct for mathematics test raw score)

(24)

*Reporting Categories
PHM = Preparing for Higher Math N = Number & Quantity
A = Algebra F  = Functions
G = Geometry
S = Statistics & Probability IES   = Integrating Essential Skills MDL = Modeling

Test 3: Reading—Scoring Key	2176CPRE

Key	Reporting Category*	
	KID	CS	IKI	
1.   D		 			
2.   F	 				
3.   C		 			
4.   J		 			
5.   D				
6.   J	 				
7.   B	 				
8.   H				
9.   B				
10.   F				
11.   D		 			
12.   F	 				
13.   B	 				
14.   G	 				
15.   D		 			
16.   G	 				
17.   C	 				
18.   H	 				
19.   B	 				
20.   J		 			

Key	Reporting Category*	
	KID	CS	IKI	
21.   B		 			
22.   F	 				
23.   C		 			
24.   J		 			
25.   A				
26.   J	 				
27.   B	 				
28.   G	 				
29.   C	 				
30.   F		 			
31.   C		 			
32.   G	 				
33.   A	 				
34.   J	 				
35.   C	 				
36.   F	 				
37.   D	 				
38.   G		 			
39.   C	 				
40.   G	 				

*Reporting Categories KID = Key Ideas & Details CS  = Craft & Structure
IKI  = Integration of Knowledge & Ideas

 	

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Key Ideas & Details (KID)

 	
(23)

Craft & Structure (CS)
(12)
Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (IKI)    	
(5)
Total Number Correct for Reading Test   		 (KID + CS + IKI)	(40)

Test 4: Science—Scoring Key	2176CPRE

Key	Reporting Category*	
	IOD	SIN	EMI	
1.   D				
2.   H				
3.   B				
4.   G				
5.   B				
6.   F				
7.   C				
8.   J		 			
9.   C		 			
10.   J	 				
11.   B		 			
12.   F	 				
13.   B		 			
14.   H		 			
15.   B	 				
16.   G	 				
17.   A	 				
18.   H	 				
19.   D	 				
20.   J	 				

Key	Reporting Category*	
	IOD	SIN	EMI	
21.   A	 				
22.   G	 				
23.   C		 			
24.   J	 				
25.   B		 			
26.   J		 			
27.   A				
28.   F	 				
29.   B	 				
30.   G				
31.   C	 				
32.   J	 				
33.   B	 				
34.   G	 				
35.   D		 			
36.   H		 			
37.   C				
38.   H		 			
39.   B	 				
40.   J		 			

*Reporting Categories IOD = Interpretation of Data
SIN = Scientifc Investigation
EMI = Evaluation of Models,
Inferences & Experimental Results

 	

Number Correct (Raw Score) for:

Interpretation of Data (IOD)

Scientifc Investigation (SIN)

 	
(18)
 	 (12)

Evaluation of Models, Inferences &
Experimental Results (EMI)	 		 (10)
Total Number Correct for Science Test   		 (IOD + SIN + EMI)	(40)

Table 1
Explanation of Procedures Used to Obtain Scale Scores from Raw Scores

ACT Test 2176CPRE	Your Scale Score	

English		
Mathematics		
Reading		
Science		

Sum of scores		
Composite score (sum	4)	 		

On each of the four multiple-choice tests on which you marked any responses, the total number of correct responses yields a raw score. Use the table below to convert your raw scores to scale scores. For each test, locate and circle your raw score or the range of raw scores that includes it in the table below. Then, read across to either outside column of the table and circle the scale score that corresponds to that raw score. As you determine your scale scores, enter them in the blanks provided on the right. The highest possible scale score for each test is 36. The lowest possible scale score for any test on which you marked any responses is 1.
Next, compute the Composite score by averaging the four scale scores. To do this, add your four scale scores and

divide the sum by 4. If the resulting number ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest whole number. (Round down any fraction less than one-half; round up any fraction that is one-half or more.) Enter this number in the blank. This is your Composite score. The highest possible Composite score is
36. The lowest possible Composite score is 1.

NOTE: If you left a test completely blank and marked no items, do not list a scale score for that test. If any test was completely blank, do not calculate a Composite score.

To calculate your writing score, use the rubric on pages 68–69.

Scale Score			Raw Scores			

Scale Score	
		Test 2 Mathematics	Test 3 Reading	Test 4 Science		
36	72-75	58-60		39-40	38-40	36	
35	70-71	56-57		38	37	35	
34	68-69	54-55		37	36	34	
33	67	53		35-36	35	33	
32	66	51-52		34	34	32	
31	65	49-50		33	—	31	
30	64	48		—	33	30	
29	62-63	46-47		32	32	29	
28	61	44-45		31	31	28	
27	60	41-43		30	—	27	
26	58-59	39-40		29	30	26	
25	56-57	37-38		28	28-29	25	
24	53-55	35-36		27	26-27	24	
23	51-52	33-34		26	25	23	
22	48-50	31-32		24-25	23-24	22	
21	45-47	30		23	22	21	
20	42-44	28-29		21-22	20-21	20	
19	40-41	26-27		20	19	19	
18	38-39	24-25		19	17-18	18	
17	36-37	21-23		17-18	15-16	17	
16	33-35	17-20		16	13-14	16	
15	30-32	13-16		14-15	12	15	
14	27-29	10-12		12-13	11	14	
13	25-26	8-9		11	10	13	
12	23-24	6-7		9-10	9	12	
11	19-22	5		7-8	8	11	
10	16-18	4		6	7	10	
9	13-15	—		5	6	9	
8	11-12	3		—	5	8	
7	9-10	—		4	4	7	
6	7-8	2		3	3	6	
5	6	—		—	—	5	
4	4-5	1		2	2	4	
3	3	—		—	1	3	
2	2	—		1	—	2	
1	0-1	0		0	0	1	
2176CPRE

How to Score the Writing Test
It is difficult to be objective about one’s own work. However, it is to your advantage to read your own writing critically, as
doing so can help you grow as a writer and as a reader. It may also be helpful for you to give your practice essay to another reader, such as a classmate, parent, or teacher. To rate your essay, you and your reader(s) should review the guidelines
and sample essays at www.actstudent.org and then use the scoring rubric below to assign your practice essay a score of 1 (low) through 6 (high) in each of the four writing domains (Ideas and Analysis, Development and Support, Organization, Language Use).

Scoring Rubric (below)
The rubric presents the standards by which your essay will be evaluated. Readers will use this rubric to assign your essay four unique scores, one per writing domain. To score your essay, determine which scorepoint, in each domain, best describes the features of your writing. Because each domain receives its own score, the four scores you assign need not be identical. For example, you may find that your essay exhibits stronger skill in organization than in the development of ideas. In this case, you may determine that your essay should receive a higher score in Organization than in Development and Support.

The ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric

	Ideas and Analysis	Development and Support	Organization	Language Use	
Score 6:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate effective skill in writing an argumentative essay.	The writer generates an argument that critically engages with multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects nuance and precision in thought and purpose. The argument establishes and employs an insightful context for analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis examines implications, complexities and tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.	Development of ideas and support for claims deepen insight and broaden context. An integrated line of skillful reasoning and illustration effectively conveys the significance of the argument. Qualifications and complications enrich and bolster ideas and analysis.	The response exhibits a skillful organizational strategy. The response is unified by a controlling idea or purpose, and a logical progression of ideas increases the effectiveness of the writer’s argument.
Transitions between and within paragraphs strengthen the relationships among ideas.	The use of language enhances the argument. Word choice is skillful and precise. Sentence structures are consistently varied and clear. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are strategic and effective. While a few minor errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.	
Score 5:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate well-developed skill in
writing an argumentative essay.	The writer generates an argument that productively engages with multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects precision in thought and purpose. The argument establishes and employs a thoughtful context for analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis addresses implications, complexities and tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.	Development of ideas and support for claims deepen understanding. A mostly integrated line of purposeful reasoning and illustration capably conveys the significance of the argument. Qualifications and complications enrich ideas and analysis.	The response exhibits a productive organizational strategy. The response is mostly unified by a controlling idea or purpose, and a logical sequencing of ideas contributes to the effectiveness of the argument. Transitions between and within paragraphs consistently clarify the relationships among ideas.	The use of language works in service of the argument. Word choice is precise.
Sentence structures are clear and varied often. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are purposeful and productive. While minor errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, they do not impede understanding.	
Score 4:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate adequate skill in writing an argumentative essay.	The writer generates an argument that engages with multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects clarity in thought and purpose. The argument establishes and employs a relevant context for analysis of the issue and its perspectives. The analysis recognizes implications, complexities and tensions, and/or underlying values and assumptions.	Development of ideas and support for claims clarify meaning and purpose.
Lines of clear reasoning and illustration adequately convey the significance of the argument. Qualifications and complications extend ideas and analysis.	The response exhibits a clear organizational strategy. The overall shape of the response reflects an emergent controlling idea or purpose. Ideas are logically grouped and sequenced.
Transitions between and within paragraphs clarify the relationships among ideas.	The use of language conveys the argument with clarity. Word choice is adequate and sometimes precise. Sentence structures are clear and demonstrate some variety. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are appropriate for the rhetorical purpose. While errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are present, they rarely impede understanding.	

The ACT Writing Test Scoring Rubric

	Ideas and Analysis	Development and Support	Organization	Language Use	
Score 3:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate some developing skill in writing an argumentative essay.	The writer generates an argument that responds to multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis reflects some clarity in thought and purpose.
The argument establishes a limited or tangential context for analysis of the issue and its perspectives. Analysis is simplistic or somewhat unclear.	Development of ideas and support for claims are mostly relevant but are overly general or simplistic. Reasoning and illustration largely clarify the argument but may be somewhat repetitious or imprecise.	The response exhibits a basic organizational structure. The response largely coheres, with most ideas logically grouped. Transitions between and within paragraphs sometimes clarify the relationships among ideas.	The use of language is basic and only somewhat clear. Word choice is general and occasionally imprecise. Sentence structures are usually clear but show little variety.
Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are not always appropriate for the rhetorical purpose.
Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics may be present, but they generally do not impede understanding.	
Score 2:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate weak or inconsistent skill in
writing an argumentative essay.	The writer generates an argument that weakly responds to multiple perspectives on the given issue. The argument’s thesis, if evident, reflects little clarity in thought and purpose. Attempts at analysis are incomplete, largely irrelevant, or consist primarily of restatement of the issue and its perspectives.	Development of ideas and support for claims are weak, confused, or disjointed. Reasoning and illustration are inadequate, illogical, or circular, and fail to fully clarify the argument.	The response exhibits a rudimentary organizational structure. Grouping of ideas is inconsistent and often unclear. Transitions between and within paragraphs are misleading or poorly formed.	The use of language is inconsistent and often unclear. Word choice is rudimentary and frequently imprecise. Sentence structures are sometimes unclear. Stylistic and register choices, including voice and tone, are inconsistent and are not always appropriate for the rhetorical purpose.
Distracting errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are present, and they sometimes impede understanding.	
Score 1:
Responses at this scorepoint demonstrate little or no skill in writing an argumentative essay.	The writer fails to generate an argument that responds intelligibly to the task. The writer’s intentions are difficult to discern. Attempts at analysis are unclear or irrelevant.	Ideas lack development, and claims lack support. Reasoning and illustration are unclear, incoherent, or largely absent.	The response does not exhibit an organizational structure. There is little grouping of ideas. When present, transitional devices fail to connect ideas.	The use of language fails to demonstrate skill in responding to the task. Word choice is imprecise and often difficult to comprehend. Sentence
structures are often unclear. Stylistic and register choices are difficult to identify. Errors in grammar, usage, and mechanics are pervasive and often impede understanding.	

Calculating Your Writing Subject Score
Complete these steps to calculate your Writing Subject Score (2–12 score range).

Score Calculation Steps	
Domain	Rubric Score		Domain Score	
1. Determine Rubric Score for each Domain	Ideas and Analysis	 		x 2 =	 		
2. Multiply each Rubric Score by 2 to get Domain Score	Development and Support	 		x 2 =	 		
	Organization	 		x 2 =	 		
	Language Use and Conventions	 		x 2 =	 		
3. Find the Sum of all Domain Scores (range 8–48)	Sum of Domain Scores    		
4. Divide Sum by 4 (range 2–12)*	Writing Subject Score    		
*Round value to the nearest whole number. Round down any fraction less than one-half; round up any fraction that is one-half or more.	

	 	

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